Simon Brown.

Join me on this journey. Let's seek the truth together! 💡 Proverbs 8:34-36 Blessed is the man who hears me, watching daily at my gates, waiting at my door posts. For whoever finds me finds life, and will obtain favor from Yahweh. But he who sins against me wrongs his own soul. All those who hate me love death.” Psalm 84: 11 For Yahweh God is a sun and a shield. Yahweh will give grace and glory. He withholds no good thing from those who walk blamelessly. 12 Yahweh of Armies, blessed is the man who trusts in you. 1 John 5:5 Now who is the one overcoming the world, except the one believing that Jesus is the Son of God.

Friday, 30 June 2017

1 John 5:7 – The Johannine Comma The Most Famous Textual Variant in the New Testament?

Infographic examining 1 John 5:7, the Johannine Comma, comparing Greek manuscripts, textual evidence, and Bible translations.
Correction: Its absent from 100%

Is the Johannine Comma in 1 John 5:7 original Scripture, or was it added centuries later? This study examines the earliest Greek manuscripts, historical evidence, and Bible translations to investigate one of the New Testament's most debated textual variants.

1 John 5:7 – The Johannine Comma

The Most Famous Textual Variant in the New Testament?

By Simon Brown

For centuries, 1 John 5:7 has been one of the most debated verses in the New Testament. The longer reading found in the King James Version states:

"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."

This passage has often been used as one of the strongest biblical arguments in support of the doctrine of the Trinity.

But an important question remains:

Did the Apostle John actually write these words?

Or were they added centuries later?

As Christians, we should follow the example of the Bereans.

"Examine everything carefully; hold fast to that which is good."
— 1 Thessalonians 5:21

And as the Apostle John warned:

"Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God."
— 1 John 4:1

If a passage has been questioned by scholars for hundreds of years, it deserves careful examination.


1 John 5:7 – The Johannine Comma  The Most Famous Textual Variant in the New Testament?

What Is the Johannine Comma?

The disputed words are commonly known as the Johannine Comma.

The longer reading says:

"...in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth..."

Modern Bible translations usually omit these words because most textual scholars conclude they were not part of John's original letter.

Instead, most modern translations simply read:

"For there are three that testify:"

followed by verse 8:

"the Spirit, the water, and the blood; and the three agree."


Why Do Most Modern Bibles Omit the Longer Reading?

One of the main reasons is the manuscript evidence.

The Johannine Comma is absent from the overwhelming majority of ancient Greek manuscripts, including the earliest and most important witnesses.

It is also absent from many early Bible translations, including ancient Syriac, Coptic, Armenian, Ethiopic, Arabic and Slavonic manuscripts.

Many respected textual scholars therefore conclude that the longer reading was not part of the original text written by John.

Bruce Metzger, regarded as one of the world's leading New Testament textual critics, concluded that the passage entered the Greek tradition through a marginal note that was later copied into the text.


The Evidence from Greek Manuscripts

The evidence is striking.

The longer Trinitarian wording is missing from virtually all early Greek manuscripts.

It only appears in a handful of very late Greek manuscripts, most of which date from the Middle Ages or later.

This explains why many modern Bible translations omit the passage or place it in a footnote.


The NASB Lexicon

An interesting example is the NASB Greek Lexicon.

When examining 1 John 5:7, the lexicon simply translates:

"For there are three that testify."

The additional Trinitarian wording does not appear because it is absent from the Greek text being translated.


The Interlinear Greek Text

The same pattern can be seen in many Greek interlinear Bibles.

The Greek text simply reads:

"For there are three that testify."

There is no reference to:

  • the Father

  • the Word

  • the Holy Spirit

within the Greek manuscript tradition on which these editions are based.


What Do Bible Commentaries Say?

Even many conservative Bible commentaries acknowledge the textual problem.

The Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Commentary notes that the disputed words are absent from the oldest Greek manuscripts and appear to have entered the Latin tradition before eventually finding their way into some Greek copies.

Likewise, the Pulpit Commentary concludes that the passage was almost certainly introduced from a marginal note into the Latin Vulgate before later appearing in a small number of Greek manuscripts.

These observations come from commentators who generally hold orthodox Trinitarian beliefs, yet still recognize the textual evidence.


Dr. James White

Dr. James White is a well-known evangelical scholar and defender of the Trinity.

Despite strongly defending Trinitarian theology, he acknowledges that the longer reading of 1 John 5:7 was not part of the original Greek text.

His acceptance of this conclusion demonstrates that rejecting the Johannine Comma does not require rejecting the doctrine of the Trinity itself. Many Trinitarian scholars also agree that the passage is not original.


Why Was It Included in the King James Bible?

The King James Bible was translated from the Textus Receptus.

The earliest printed editions of the Textus Receptus did not contain the Johannine Comma.

Later editions included it after pressure was placed on Desiderius Erasmus when a Greek manuscript containing the passage was produced. Most scholars believe this manuscript was very late.

Because the King James translators relied largely on these later editions of the Textus Receptus, the longer reading entered the King James Version.


Does Removing the Comma Affect Christian Faith?

For many Christians, the answer is no.

Even many Trinitarian scholars freely admit the passage is almost certainly not original while continuing to believe in the Trinity based on other passages.

Likewise, Christians who reject the doctrine of the Trinity argue that removing the Johannine Comma simply restores John's original words.

Either way, the question is one of textual history, not merely theology.


The Importance of Honest Scholarship

Whatever our theological position, Christians should seek the original words of Scripture.

If later additions entered the biblical text, we should not be afraid to acknowledge them.

Truth has nothing to fear from honest investigation.

As Jesus said:

"Seek, and you shall find."
— Matthew 7:7


My Conclusion

After studying the manuscript evidence, the Greek text, early Bible translations, and the conclusions of numerous textual scholars—including many who themselves believe in the Trinity—I have concluded that the longer reading of 1 John 5:7, known as the Johannine Comma, was not part of John's original letter.

In my view, the evidence strongly supports the shorter reading preserved in the earliest Greek manuscripts.

For me, this demonstrates the importance of testing every teaching against Scripture and carefully examining the historical evidence rather than accepting traditions without question.

Whether readers ultimately agree or disagree with my conclusion, I encourage everyone to study the evidence personally and prayerfully.

As Jesus said:

"Seek, and you will find."
— Matthew 7:7


Related articles:

Saturday, 24 June 2017

1 Timothy 3:16, Yet AGAIN, Another Trinitarian DECEPTION.

 

1 Timothy 3:16 infographic comparing the KJV phrase “God was manifest in the flesh” with the Greek ὃς (hos), meaning “who” or “he who,” using Codex Sinaiticus, Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus and Greek manuscript evidence.

This detailed infographic examines the textual variant in 1 Timothy 3:16. It compares the King James Bible reading “God was manifest in the flesh” with the Greek reading ὃς (hos), meaning “who” or “he who,” and presents evidence from Codex Sinaiticus, Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus, Greek lexicons, interlinear texts and Colossians 1:15.

QUICK FACTS: 1 TIMOTHY 3:16

DOES THE ORIGINAL GREEK REALLY SAY “GOD WAS MANIFESTED IN THE FLESH”?

Some Bible translations of 1 Timothy 3:16 contain a striking statement:

“God was manifest in the flesh.”
— 1 Timothy 3:16, KJV

At first glance, this appears to be powerful evidence that Paul directly identified Jesus as God manifested in human flesh.

But there is a major textual problem.

The earliest and strongest Greek manuscript evidence does not read θεός (theos), “God.”

Instead, the reading accepted in most modern critical Greek texts is:

ὃς — “WHO” / “HE WHO”

That difference is extremely important.

The question is therefore not what later theology says the verse means.

The question is:

WHAT DID THE GREEK TEXT ACTUALLY SAY?


THE TEXTUAL VARIANT

There are several ancient readings of 1 Timothy 3:16.

The two most important for this discussion are:

θεός — THEOS — “GOD”

and

ὃς — HOS — “WHO”

The KJV follows the reading θεός, producing:

“God was manifest in the flesh.”

However, the critical Greek text followed by most modern scholars reads:

ὃς ἐφανερώθη ἐν σαρκί

Literally:

“Who was revealed/manifested in flesh.”

The person described by the passage is understood to be Christ, but the Greek text itself does not call Him θεός — God at this point.

That is the crucial distinction.


QUICK FACT NO. 1

THE WORD “GOD” IS NOT IN THE CRITICAL GREEK TEXT

Look at the Greek text and lexicons.

The word appearing at the beginning of the statement is:

ὃς

Strong's Greek 3739.

It is a relative pronoun meaning:

“who”

It is NOT:

θεός

the Greek word meaning:

“God.”

Therefore, when 1 Timothy 3:16 is reconstructed with the reading ὃς, Paul does not actually write:

“God was manifested in flesh.”

He writes:

“Who was manifested in flesh…”

This is not a small translation difference.

The underlying Greek word itself is different.


QUICK FACT NO. 2

CODEX SINAITICUS SUPPORTS “WHO,” NOT “GOD”

This becomes particularly important when we examine ancient manuscripts.

Codex Sinaiticus, one of our oldest surviving substantially complete Greek manuscripts of the New Testament, supports the reading:

ὃς — WHO

not:

θεός — GOD

Therefore, Sinaiticus does not provide the statement:

“God was manifested in the flesh.”

The manuscript instead supports the relative pronoun “who.”

This is strong evidence that the familiar KJV wording cannot simply be assumed to represent the earliest recoverable form of the text.


QUICK FACT NO. 3

CODEX EPHRAEMI RESCRIPTUS PROVIDES FASCINATING EVIDENCE

Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus is especially interesting in the history of this textual variant.

The manuscript has traditionally been cited as evidence that an earlier reading was subsequently altered so that it could be read as θεός — “God.”

This matters because the abbreviated manuscript form for θεός could visually resemble ΟΣ, particularly when additional strokes were added.

Bruce Metzger discussed this famous textual problem in his Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament.

The manuscript evidence led the UBS critical text to prefer:

ὃς — “WHO”

rather than:

θεός — “GOD.”

Whatever theological conclusions someone ultimately reaches about Jesus, textual criticism must first establish what the author most probably wrote.

And the strongest critical-text tradition does not put the word “God” here.


QUICK FACT NO. 4

COMPARE COLOSSIANS 1:15

There is an easy way to understand the Greek word ὃς.

Look at another passage written by Paul:

COLOSSIANS 1:15

The Greek begins:

ὅς ἐστιν εἰκὼν τοῦ Θεοῦ τοῦ ἀοράτου…

Meaning:

“Who is the image of the invisible God…”

Here again we find the relative pronoun:

ὅς — “WHO”

Nobody needs to translate ὅς in Colossians 1:15 as “God.”

In fact, the verse immediately distinguishes the person described by “who” from God, whose image He is.

This helps demonstrate something very simple:

ὅς / ὃς DOES NOT MEAN “GOD.”

The Greek word for God is:

θεός

These are different Greek words.


SO HOW DID “GOD” ENTER SOME BIBLES?

This is where we need to be careful.

It is historically inaccurate to say that all modern Trinitarian translations read “God was manifested in the flesh.”

In fact, many major modern translations reject the KJV's “God” reading precisely because modern textual criticism considers ὃς (“who”) better supported.

The KJV and some translations based upon the later Byzantine/Textus Receptus tradition contain “God.”

Other translations follow the earlier manuscript evidence and translate the passage along the lines of:

“He who was manifested in the flesh…”

or:

“He appeared in the flesh…”

Therefore, the real issue is not simply:

Trinitarian Bible versus Unitarian Bible.

The deeper issue is:

WHICH GREEK READING IS EARLIEST AND BEST SUPPORTED?

And that is exactly the sort of question every serious Bible student should ask.


DOES THIS VERSE CALL JESUS GOD?

If ὃς is the original reading, the answer is straightforward:

NO.

1 Timothy 3:16 describes Christ, but it does not explicitly call Christ θεός — God.

There is an enormous difference between saying:

Christ was manifested in flesh

and saying:

God was manifested in flesh.

The first identifies the person being described.

The second adds an explicit identification of that person as God.

That explicit identification disappears when θεός is removed from the text.


THIS ALSO FITS PAUL'S CLEAR LANGUAGE ELSEWHERE

Rather than building doctrine upon a disputed textual variant, we should compare Paul's undisputed statements.

Paul writes:

“Yet to us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and we for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and we through Him.”
1 Corinthians 8:6, BLB

Notice Paul's distinction:

ONE GOD — THE FATHER

and

ONE LORD — JESUS CHRIST

Paul also writes:

“For there is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus.”
1 Timothy 2:5, BLB

This statement occurs in the very same letter.

Paul identifies:

one God

and then distinguishes from that God:

the man Christ Jesus, God's mediator.

Whatever interpretation we ultimately adopt, these undisputed passages deserve enormous weight when interpreting a disputed reading in 1 Timothy 3:16.


GOD IS NOT A MAN

The Old Testament makes another important statement:

“God is not a man, that He should lie, nor a son of man, that He should repent.”
Numbers 23:19

Jesus repeatedly called Himself:

THE SON OF MAN

and the New Testament repeatedly identifies Him as God's Son.

This is why we should not casually turn a disputed manuscript reading into a declaration that Paul wrote:

“GOD BECAME A MAN.”

First we must establish whether Paul actually used the word God.

The earliest manuscript evidence gives us very serious reason to conclude that he did not.


WHAT ABOUT TRINITARIAN COMMENTARIES?

Some historic Trinitarian commentators naturally interpreted the KJV/Textus Receptus wording theologically.

Matthew Henry, for example, discusses the passage as:

“God was manifest in the flesh.”

The Geneva tradition similarly interpreted the verse through the reading “God.”

But commentary is not manuscript evidence.

A commentator can only interpret the text placed before him.

Therefore, the question must go one step further:

WAS “GOD” ACTUALLY WHAT PAUL WROTE?

That is where textual criticism becomes essential.


AN IMPORTANT CORRECTION

I want this research to be as accurate as possible.

It would be too strong to claim that we can prove that a particular Trinitarian scribe deliberately changed 1 Timothy 3:16 specifically to invent the Trinity.

The manuscript evidence demonstrates a textual alteration/variant involving ὃς and θεός.

Whether every alteration was deliberate, accidental, or doctrinally motivated is a separate historical question.

Bruce Metzger himself discussed both accidental and deliberate possibilities.

Therefore, the strongest argument is not:

“WE KNOW EXACTLY WHO CHANGED IT AND WHY.”

The strongest demonstrable argument is:

THE READING “GOD” IS NOT THE READING PREFERRED BY THE EARLIEST AND STRONGEST MANUSCRIPT EVIDENCE.

That fact alone is significant.

We do not need to exaggerate the evidence.


WHAT HAVE WE DISCOVERED?

The evidence can be summarized very simply:

1. Some later Greek manuscripts read θεός — “God.”

2. The Textus Receptus adopted that reading.

3. The KJV therefore translated:

“God was manifest in the flesh.”

4. Important earlier manuscript evidence supports ὃς — “who.”

5. Modern critical Greek editions therefore generally print ὃς, not θεός.

6. Consequently, 1 Timothy 3:16 cannot safely be used as proof that Paul explicitly called Jesus God.

That final point is the heart of this Quick Facts investigation.


THE BEREAN TEST

Acts records something wonderful about the Bereans:

“Now these were more noble than those in Thessalonica, who received the word with all readiness, every day examining the Scriptures, whether these things were so.”
Acts 17:11, BLB

That is the approach I want to follow.

Don't believe something merely because a Unitarian says it.

Don't believe something merely because a Trinitarian says it.

Don't believe something merely because an English Bible translation prints it.

CHECK THE EVIDENCE.

Compare the manuscripts.

Examine the Greek.

Compare Scripture with Scripture.

And then decide what you believe.


FINAL CONCLUSION

Does the strongest early textual evidence for 1 Timothy 3:16 say:

“GOD WAS MANIFESTED IN THE FLESH”?

NO.

The critical Greek reading is:

ὃς — “WHO”

not:

θεός — “GOD.”

Therefore, whatever someone believes about the Trinity from other passages, 1 Timothy 3:16 should not be presented as an undisputed statement in which Paul explicitly calls Jesus “God.”

That claim depends upon a disputed later textual reading.

And once the earlier Greek evidence is examined, the supposed statement:

“GOD WAS MANIFESTED IN THE FLESH”

is no longer the secure proof-text it first appeared to be.

Paul's undisputed teaching remains extraordinarily clear:

“Yet to us there is one God, the Father…”
1 Corinthians 8:6, BLB

and:

“For there is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus.”
1 Timothy 2:5, BLB

That is why 1 Timothy 3:16 deserves to be studied from the Greek manuscripts themselves rather than used as a shortcut to establish a doctrine.

Research by Simon Brown

wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com

Related articles:


1 Timothy 3:16 infographic comparing the KJV phrase “God was manifest in the flesh” with the Greek ὃς (hos), meaning “who” or “he who,” using Codex Sinaiticus, Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus and Greek manuscript evidence.

Wednesday, 14 June 2017

Acts 20:28 – What Does the Original Greek Really Say?

Acts 20:28 is one of the most discussed verses in the New Testament. Compare the original Greek, ancient manuscripts, Bible translations, and translator footnotes to discover what the evidence really says.

This Quick Facts study explores Acts 20:28 by comparing the original Greek text, Codex Sinaiticus, modern Bible translations, and manuscript evidence. Learn why many translations include footnotes and why careful examination of the text is essential before drawing conclusions.

Acts 20:28 — Quick Facts

Do All Greek Manuscripts Really Say "God Purchased the Church with His Own Blood"?

One of the verses frequently cited in support of the doctrine that Jesus is God is Acts 20:28. But does the manuscript evidence really support that conclusion?

Quick Facts

  • The manuscripts of Acts 20:28 contain textual variations, including readings such as "church of God" and "church of the Lord."

  • Several modern Bible translations include footnotes informing readers that different ancient manuscripts preserve different readings.

  • Some translations also render the verse:

    "the church of God, which he obtained with the blood of his own Son,"
    or include this understanding in the footnotes.

  • The Greek expression τοῦ ἰδίου (tou idiou) literally means "of his own" and can be understood as referring to his own Son, depending on the context.

  • Because of these manuscript differences, many Bible scholars acknowledge that Acts 20:28 is a textually disputed passage.

  • The Codex Sinaiticus contains the reading "God" (Θεοῦ), while other manuscripts contain "Lord." This is one reason why modern translations often include explanatory footnotes.

Why the Footnotes Matter

Before building a doctrine on Acts 20:28, always read the translator's footnotes.

Many readers never notice that Bible translators themselves acknowledge alternative manuscript readings and possible translations.

What Does This Mean?

Acts 20:28 is one of several passages where the manuscript evidence is not entirely uniform. For that reason, the verse should be studied carefully alongside its textual notes, the original Greek, and the wider teaching of Scripture before using it as proof of any doctrine.

"Now these Jews were more noble than those in Thessalonica... examining the Scriptures daily to see if these things were so."Acts 17:11

Monday, 5 June 2017

Does Acts 7:59 Really Say Stephen Was "Calling Upon God"?

Acts 7:59 Quick Facts infographic comparing the King James Version, modern Bible translations, and the Greek text to examine whether Stephen was calling upon God.

This Quick Facts study examines Acts 7:59 by comparing the King James Version, modern translations, and the original Greek text. Does the Greek actually contain the words "calling upon God," or were those words supplied by translators? Compare the evidence and decide for yourself.


Acts 7:59 — Quick Facts

Does Acts 7:59 Really Say Stephen Was "Calling Upon God"?

Acts 7:59 is sometimes quoted from the King James Version:

"And they stoned Stephen, calling upon God, and saying, Lord Jesus, receive my spirit."

Many readers naturally assume the words "calling upon God" mean Stephen was directly calling Jesus God.

But is that what the Greek text actually says?

Quick Facts

  • The Greek text of Acts 7:59 does not contain the word "God" (θεός) in this verse.

  • Many modern translations simply read:

    "And as they were stoning Stephen, he called out, 'Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.'"

  • The Greek verb ἐπικαλούμενον (epikaloumenon) means calling out, calling upon, or invoking, but the object "God" is not present in the Greek text.

  • The King James translators supplied the words "calling upon God" as part of their translation. In many editions, supplied words are indicated by italics.

  • The interlinear Greek text shows Stephen calling out and then saying:

    "Lord Jesus, receive my spirit."
    There is no Greek word for "God" in the verse itself.

  • Because of this, Acts 7:59 does not explicitly identify Jesus as God simply by using the phrase "calling upon God."

What Does This Mean?

Acts 7:59 certainly records Stephen addressing the risen Lord Jesus.

However, the verse itself does not contain the word "God" in the Greek text, so it should not be used as proof that Stephen called Jesus God on the basis of that added wording alone.

As always, every doctrine should be tested by comparing translations with the original Greek and by considering the wider teaching of Scripture.

"Test all things; hold fast what is good."1 Thessalonians 5:21


Related links:

Old article here: