Simon Brown with his wife Angel and her family at their Christian wedding. This Bible study investigates who Jesus taught His followers to pray to and worship, who Jesus Himself prayed to, prayer to the Father through Jesus Christ, and whether Christian traditions concerning prayer agree with Jesus’ own teachings. 

WHO DID JESUS SAY WE SHOULD PRAY TO AND WORSHIP?

What Did Jesus Himself Teach About Prayer, Worship, the Father, and His Own Role as the Son of God?

A Personal Testimony and Biblical Investigation

Research by Simon Brown

There are some Bible studies that begin simply because we come across a difficult verse. But this study is different.

This article grew out of something deeply personal in my own life—my previous marriage, my relationship with God during one of the most painful periods of my life, and eventually meeting Angel, who became my new wife three years later.

It also grew out of a question that I now believe every Christian should seriously consider:

WHO DID JESUS ACTUALLY TEACH US TO PRAY TO AND WORSHIP?

Detailed Quick Facts Bible research infographic examining who Jesus taught His followers to pray to and worship. It explores Matthew 6:6–9, John 16:23, John 4:23, John 17:3, John 20:17, 1 Timothy 2:5, prayer to Jesus and the Holy Spirit, obedience to Jesus’ teachings, and whether the way Christians pray could affect their prayers. Research by Simon Brown.

Not who does our church tell us to pray to.
Not what have we always done.
Not what does Catholicism, Trinitarianism, Modalism, or even my own understanding tell us.
But:

WHAT DID JESUS SAY?

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MY PERSONAL JOURNEY

In 2023, I separated from my wife after discovering that she was having an affair with one of our lodgers.

Of course, this broke my heart.

During our marriage I had tried to teach her many of the teachings of Jesus, but she would not seriously study the Word of God for herself. I had often worried that without strong foundations in God, Jesus and the Bible, her faith might not be strong enough when serious temptation came.

Sadly, my marriage ended through adultery.

During this extremely difficult period, however, I personally felt God's love, guidance and support very strongly.

Eventually I obtained a court order preventing my former wife from returning to my home. Through everything that happened, I believed God was helping me through one of the most painful periods of my life.

And so I prayed.

I prayed that God would bring a Christian woman into my life who would join me in following Jesus Christ and the One True God.

And then I met a beautiful young Christian woman called Angel.

It almost seemed to me as though God had literally sent me an angel.

But there was something that immediately presented a challenge.

ANGEL WAS A DEDICATED CATHOLIC.

And this made me wonder:

Was there a reason God had brought a Catholic woman into my life?

Could I encourage Angel to open the Bible for herself and examine whether everything she had inherited through Catholic tradition actually agreed with the teachings of Jesus?

Could I also encourage her family to do the same?

I knew from personal experience how difficult changing one's religious beliefs can be, because I had previously been a Trinitarian myself.

Leaving deeply established religious doctrines behind can feel like trying to turn an enormous oil tanker around in the middle of the ocean.

People naturally tend to believe what they have been taught throughout their lives. But something being taught for hundreds of years—or believed by millions of people—does not automatically make it true.

The question must always be:

WHAT DOES THE WORD OF GOD ACTUALLY SAY?

---

ANGEL BEGAN QUESTIONING HER CATHOLIC FAITH

Over time, Angel began examining these things for herself.

I encouraged her not simply to believe me, but to read the Bible and test what she had been taught against Scripture.

Eventually Angel left the Catholic faith and came to share my belief that Jesus is literally the Son of the One True God, rather than God Himself.

Some members of her family also subsequently left Catholicism.

However, our journey certainly didn't end there.

I began noticing something very important.

Although their beliefs had changed, some of their religious habits and traditions had not completely changed with them.

They would still sing to Jesus, worship Jesus and direct prayers to Jesus.

This made me ask:

IF WE CHANGE OUR DOCTRINE BUT CONTINUE PRACTISING SOMETHING JESUS NEVER TAUGHT US TO DO, HAVE WE REALLY FOLLOWED HIS TEACHING ALL THE WAY?

That question is one of the main reasons I decided to write this study.

---

THE CHANGES I HAVE SEEN IN ANGEL'S LIFE

When I first met Angel and her family, they were living with considerable financial hardship.

I felt deeply sorry for them.

Since then, their circumstances have improved considerably. Angel herself has changed enormously, and even people around her have noticed the difference in her circumstances and the things she and her family can now enjoy that were previously beyond their means.

Naturally this has made me wonder about God's blessings.

Jesus said:

MATTHEW 6:33

“But seek first the kingdom of God and His righteousness, and all these things will be added to you.”

I cannot prove that Angel's improved circumstances happened because she left Catholicism or rejected the Trinity.

Nor would it be right for me to conclude that relatives experiencing debt must therefore be under God's displeasure because they remain Trinitarians.

The Bible itself contains faithful servants of God who experienced poverty, suffering and hardship.

But what I can say is that I have personally seen enormous changes in Angel's life, and these experiences have strengthened my desire that both she and her family continue seeking God and testing everything against His Word.

Material prosperity itself cannot determine whether a doctrine is true.

SCRIPTURE MUST DETERMINE THAT.

And that brings me to the question at the heart of this study.

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WHO DO DIFFERENT CHRISTIAN FAITHS PRAY TO?

Before criticising anybody's beliefs, we should represent them accurately.

CATHOLICISM

Catholics may pray to the Father, Jesus and the Holy Spirit. Catholic worship also contains the traditional pattern of approaching the Father through Christ.

Catholics additionally ask Mary and the saints for their intercession, although Catholic teaching distinguishes this from the worship it says belongs to God alone.

ORTHODOX TRINITARIAN CHRISTIANITY

Trinitarians believe that:

The Father is God.
The Son is God.
The Holy Spirit is God.

Yet they maintain that there is only one God, not three Gods.

Therefore Trinitarian Christians generally regard prayer addressed to the Father, Jesus, or the Holy Spirit as legitimate, although many Trinitarian traditions particularly emphasize prayer to the Father, through the Son, in the Holy Spirit.

ONENESS / MODALIST CHRISTIANITY

Oneness believers reject the orthodox Trinity of three distinct divine persons.

They strongly emphasize Jesus as the revelation of the one God, and prayer directly to Jesus consequently occupies an important place in their faith.

These doctrines are different, and we should not confuse them.

Trinitarians do not believe Jesus is the Father.

Oneness believers may identify Jesus with the Father in a way orthodox Trinitarians explicitly reject.

But this leaves us with the question that matters most:

WHICH OF THESE BELIEFS AGREES WITH JESUS?

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QUICK FACT 1 — JESUS SAID: PRAY TO YOUR FATHER

Jesus gave remarkably straightforward instructions:

MATTHEW 6:6

“Pray to your Father…”

Notice whom Jesus identifies as the recipient of prayer:

YOUR FATHER.

Jesus then proceeds to teach His followers how to pray.

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QUICK FACT 2 — JESUS BEGAN HIS MODEL PRAYER: “OUR FATHER”

MATTHEW 6:9

Jesus said:

“Therefore pray like this: ‘Our Father in the heavens…’”

Jesus did not begin:

“Our Jesus…”

He did not say:

“Our Holy Spirit…”

Nor did He say:

“Our Father, Son and Holy Spirit…”

He said:

“OUR FATHER.”

If Jesus was deliberately teaching His disciples how to pray, shouldn't His followers take that instruction extremely seriously?

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QUICK FACT 3 — JESUS TAUGHT HIS DISCIPLES TO ASK THE FATHER IN HIS NAME

Jesus said:

JOHN 16:23

“Whatever you may ask the Father in My name, He will give you.”

Look carefully at the relationship:

ASK THE FATHER → IN JESUS' NAME

Jesus presents Himself as central to our approach to the Father.

This agrees beautifully with:

EPHESIANS 2:18

“For through Him we both have access to the Father by one Spirit.”

Again:

THROUGH CHRIST → TO THE FATHER

And Paul writes:

1 TIMOTHY 2:5

“For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus.”

Again Scripture distinguishes:

ONE GOD

from

THE MEDIATOR — JESUS CHRIST.

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QUICK FACT 4 — WHO DID JESUS HIMSELF PRAY TO?

Jesus didn't merely tell other people how to pray.

He showed them.

Matthew 11:25

Jesus addressed the Father.

Matthew 26:39

Jesus prayed:

“My Father…”

Luke 22:42

Jesus prayed:

“Father…”

John 11:41

Jesus said:

“Father, I thank You…”

John 17:1

Jesus lifted His eyes toward heaven and said:

“Father…”

Luke 23:46

At His death Jesus cried:

“Father, into Your hands I commit My spirit.”

The pattern is difficult to miss:

JESUS PRAYED TO HIS FATHER.

So shouldn't people who claim to follow Jesus seriously consider following His example of prayer?

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QUICK FACT 5 — JESUS SAID TRUE WORSHIPPERS WOULD WORSHIP THE FATHER

Jesus told the Samaritan woman:

JOHN 4:23

“The true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and truth…”

Notice again:

THE FATHER.

Jesus continues in verse 24 that God is spirit and those worshipping Him must worship in spirit and truth.

This raises a serious question:

IF JESUS SAID TRUE WORSHIPPERS WOULD WORSHIP THE FATHER, WHY SHOULDN'T WE FOLLOW HIS INSTRUCTION?

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QUICK FACT 6 — JESUS CALLED THE FATHER “THE ONLY TRUE GOD”

In one of Jesus' greatest recorded prayers, He said:

JOHN 17:1–3

Jesus prayed to His Father, and then said:

“…that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You sent.”

There are two identities in the statement:

“YOU” — THE FATHER, THE ONLY TRUE GOD

and

“JESUS CHRIST” — THE ONE WHOM THE FATHER SENT

For me, this is extremely important evidence concerning the identity of God.

---

QUICK FACT 7 — EVEN THE RISEN JESUS HAS A GOD

After His resurrection Jesus told Mary:

JOHN 20:17

“I am ascending to My Father and your Father, and My God and your God.”

Jesus didn't merely have a Father before His death.

The risen Jesus still said:

“MY GOD.”

And whom was He talking about?

THE FATHER.

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QUICK FACT 8 — THIS CHALLENGES TWO DIFFERENT BELIEFS ABOUT JESUS

This evidence needs to be applied carefully because I am addressing two different doctrines.

MODALISM / ONENESS

If Jesus literally is the Father, why is Jesus praying to the Father, speaking to the Father, being sent by the Father and calling the Father “My God”?

TRINITARIANISM

Trinitarians already agree that Jesus is not the Father.

Their claim is different: the Father and Son are distinct persons who nevertheless fully share the one divine being.

Therefore my question for Trinitarians is:

WHY DOES SCRIPTURE REPEATEDLY IDENTIFY THE FATHER AS JESUS' GOD WHILE PRESENTING JESUS AS GOD'S SON, MESSIAH, SENT ONE AND MEDIATOR?

Prayer is not my only evidence for this conclusion.

It is one part of the much larger cumulative biblical case that has led me to believe the Father is the One True God and Jesus is His Son.

---

QUICK FACT 9 — WHERE DID JESUS TEACH US TO PRAY TO THE HOLY SPIRIT?

This is another question I believe Trinitarian Christians should seriously consider.

If the Holy Spirit is a third distinct, coequal divine person and Christians are supposed to address prayers directly to Him:

WHERE DID JESUS TEACH THIS?

Where did Jesus say:

“PRAY TO THE HOLY SPIRIT”?

Where do the apostles provide a model prayer beginning:

“HOLY SPIRIT…”?

Romans 8:26 describes the Spirit as helping believers in their weakness and interceding in connection with prayer.

But saying the Spirit helps us pray is not the same statement as commanding us to pray to the Spirit.

The absence of an explicit command by itself does not prove that addressing the Holy Spirit is forbidden.

But it certainly gives us a question worth investigating:

IF DIRECT PRAYER TO THE HOLY SPIRIT IS SUPPOSED TO BE A NORMAL PART OF CHRISTIAN WORSHIP, WHY IS AN EXPLICIT TEACHING OR EXAMPLE SO DIFFICULT TO FIND?

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QUICK FACT 10 — BUT DID ANYONE DIRECTLY ADDRESS JESUS?

Yes.

And we must not hide this.

ACTS 7:59

As Stephen was being stoned:

“Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.”

Stephen was directly addressing Jesus.

But look at the extraordinary circumstances.

Immediately beforehand Stephen sees:

ACTS 7:55–56

God's glory and Jesus standing at God's right hand.

Stephen therefore sees Jesus and directly addresses the risen Jesus whom he is seeing.

This passage should not be dismissed.

But neither should we turn Stephen's extraordinary experience into words Jesus never spoke.

Acts 7:59 does not record Jesus saying:

“FROM NOW ON, PRAY TO ME INSTEAD OF THE FATHER.”

Nor does it say:

“THIS IS NOW THE MODEL FOR CHRISTIAN PRAYER.”

The question therefore remains:

SHOULD ONE EXAMPLE OF DIRECTLY ADDRESSING THE RISEN JESUS DURING AN EXTRAORDINARY VISION REPLACE JESUS' EXPLICIT INSTRUCTIONS: “PRAY TO YOUR FATHER”?

I do not believe it should.

Revelation 22:20 similarly contains the appeal:

“Come, Lord Jesus.”

So I am not claiming that nobody in Scripture ever directly addressed Jesus.

I am asking something much more specific:

WHO DID JESUS TEACH HIS DISCIPLES TO PRAY TO?

And His answer was:

THE FATHER.

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QUICK FACT 11 — JESUS SAID LOVING HIM MEANS KEEPING HIS COMMANDMENTS

This takes us to something even more important than theological argument.

Jesus said:

JOHN 14:15

“If you love Me, you will keep My commandments.”

And:

JOHN 8:31

“If you remain in My word, you are truly My disciples.”

And 2 John 1:6 says that love involves walking according to His commandments.

Therefore this isn't merely about winning an argument concerning the Trinity.

IT IS ABOUT OBEDIENCE TO JESUS.

If Jesus teaches:

“Pray to your Father,”

shouldn't those who claim to follow Him want to do exactly that?

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QUICK FACT 12 — COULD THIS EVEN AFFECT OUR PRAYERS?

This brings me to a question I believe Christians should take very seriously.

I am not saying that every unanswered prayer happens because somebody prayed to Jesus rather than the Father.

Scripture gives several reasons prayer may not receive the answer we desire.

But Jesus Himself connects prayer with remaining in His teaching.

JOHN 15:7

“If you abide in Me and My words abide in you, ask whatever you wish…”

Jesus also says:

JOHN 15:10

that keeping His commandments is connected with remaining in His love.

So we should at least be prepared to ask:

IF WE ARE NOT FOLLOWING JESUS' INSTRUCTIONS ABOUT PRAYER, COULD THIS CONTRIBUTE TO OUR PRAYERS NOT BEING ANSWERED?

If Jesus taught us to pray to the Father, why would we knowingly substitute a different pattern?

If Jesus tells us to remain in His words, shouldn't His words about prayer remain in us too?

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QUICK FACT 13 — THE BIBLE GIVES OTHER REASONS PRAYER CAN BE HINDERED

We should not oversimplify unanswered prayer.

James 4:3

People can ask with wrong motives.

1 John 5:14

Confidence in prayer is connected with asking according to God's will.

Mark 11:25

Jesus connects prayer with forgiveness.

1 Peter 3:7

Our conduct toward others can affect our prayers.

So Scripture clearly teaches something important:

GOD DOES CARE HOW WE LIVE AND HOW WE PRAY.

Therefore asking whether we are following Jesus' instructions concerning prayer is completely legitimate.

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QUICK FACT 14 — DOES JESUS RECEIVING “WORSHIP” CHANGE EVERYTHING?

The New Testament does describe people bowing before Jesus, and the Greek word proskyneō is sometimes translated “worship.”

This deserves careful investigation because proskyneō can describe worship of God, but it can also describe bowing, homage or reverence toward someone who is not God.

Therefore the mere appearance of the English word “worship” does not by itself settle Jesus' identity.

I have examined this separately in:

QUICK FACTS: WAS JESUS WORSHIPPED — AND IF SO, DOES THAT PROVE JESUS IS GOD?

[READ ARTICLE — LINK TO BE ADDED]

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QUICK FACT 15 — HONOURING JESUS IS NOT OPTIONAL

None of this means Christians should dishonour Jesus.

Quite the opposite.

Jesus is God's Son.

He is the Messiah.

He is our Lord.

He is God's appointed King.

He is our mediator.

God raised Him from the dead and exalted Him.

Jesus says in John 5:23 that the Son is to be honoured.

And Philippians 2:9–11 describes God highly exalting Jesus so that every knee should bow and every tongue confess Jesus Christ as Lord:

“TO THE GLORY OF GOD THE FATHER.”

Therefore my argument is not:

DISHONOUR JESUS.

My argument is:

HONOUR JESUS BY LISTENING TO JESUS.

If Jesus says:

“PRAY TO YOUR FATHER”

then surely one of the greatest ways of honouring Jesus is to believe Him and obey Him.

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SO WHO SHOULD CHRISTIANS PRAY TO?

After examining Jesus' teaching, His example and the wider New Testament pattern, this is the conclusion I have personally reached:

PRAY TO THE FATHER

THROUGH JESUS CHRIST

IN JESUS' NAME

Jesus is not an obstacle between us and God.

He is the one through whom we have access to the Father.

That is why Jesus said:

JOHN 14:6

“I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through Me.”

Notice where the Way leads:

TO THE FATHER.

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MY MESSAGE TO ANGEL, HER FAMILY — AND EVERY CHRISTIAN READING THIS

This study is particularly personal to me because of Angel and her family.

I don't want Angel to believe something merely because I tell her.

I don't want her family exchanging one human tradition for another.

And I don't want anybody reading this article to believe something simply because Simon Brown wrote it.

Open your Bible.

Read Jesus' words for yourself.

Ask:

WHO DID JESUS PRAY TO?

WHO DID JESUS TEACH ME TO PRAY TO?

WHO DID JESUS SAY TRUE WORSHIPPERS WOULD WORSHIP?

WHO DID JESUS CALL “THE ONLY TRUE GOD”?

WHO DID JESUS CALL “MY GOD”?

WHY DID JESUS TEACH US TO ASK THE FATHER IN HIS NAME?

WHERE DID JESUS TEACH US TO PRAY TO THE HOLY SPIRIT?

AND AM I FOLLOWING JESUS' WORDS — OR SIMPLY FOLLOWING WHAT MY RELIGION TAUGHT ME?

These are questions I believe every Catholic, Trinitarian, Oneness believer—and indeed every Christian, including myself—should be willing to ask.

Because Jesus said:

“IF YOU REMAIN IN MY WORD, YOU ARE TRULY MY DISCIPLES.”

— John 8:31

And:

“IF YOU LOVE ME, YOU WILL KEEP MY COMMANDMENTS.”

— John 14:15

So perhaps the most important question isn't:

WHAT HAS MY CHURCH ALWAYS TAUGHT ME?

It is:

AM I ACTUALLY DOING WHAT JESUS TAUGHT ME?

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Research by Simon Brown

wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com

Related articles: 

 Quick Facts: Was Jesus Worshipped — And If So, Does That Prove Jesus Is God?

John 1:1

• John 1:1 — Does "The Word Was God" Mean Jesus Is Almighty God?
• IS THE WORD JESUS IN JOHN 1:1? 
• What Is the Truth About John 1:1 to 5?
• WHY John 1:1 is not about Jesus!
• Hebrews 1:10 – Did God Really Say to the Son, “You Laid the Foundation of the Earth”?
• WHO IS THE ONE TRUE GOD? New video!

Bible research image examining whether Jesus being worshipped proves He is God. The study investigates the Greek word proskyneo, biblical examples of worship and homage, and Jesus' teaching about worshipping God the Father. Research by Simon Brown.

QUICK FACTS: WAS JESUS WORSHIPPED — AND IF SO, DOES THAT PROVE JESUS IS GOD?

Does the Greek Word Translated “Worship” Always Mean Worship Given Only to God?

Research by Simon Brown

One of the most common arguments for the deity of Jesus goes something like this:

JESUS WAS WORSHIPPED.

ONLY GOD MAY BE WORSHIPPED.

THEREFORE JESUS MUST BE GOD.

At first sight, this sounds like a very powerful argument.

The New Testament certainly contains passages where people bow before Jesus, honour Him, and—in many English translations—are said to “worship” Him.

But there is an important question that must be answered before drawing a conclusion:

DOES THE BIBLICAL WORD TRANSLATED “WORSHIP” ALWAYS MEAN THAT THE PERSON RECEIVING IT IS GOD?

The answer is important.

Because if the same biblical language can also describe honour, homage or bowing before human kings and other authorized figures, then the mere presence of the English word “worship” cannot by itself prove that Jesus is the One True God.

Let's examine the evidence.

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Detailed Bible research infographic examining whether Jesus receiving worship proves He is God. It explores the Greek word proskyneo, examples of homage given to Jesus and human kings, Matthew 4:10, John 4:23, John 17:3, John 20:17 and Philippians 2:9–11. Research by Simon Brown.

QUICK FACT 1 — THE IMPORTANT GREEK WORD IS PROSKYNEŌ

One of the principal Greek words translated “worship” in the New Testament is:

προσκυνέω — PROSKYNEŌ

Depending upon context, it can describe:

bowing down

prostrating oneself

paying homage

showing reverence

and, when God is the object:

worship

This distinction is crucial.

The word itself does not automatically answer the theological question:

IS THE PERSON RECEIVING THIS HOMAGE GOD?

Context helps determine what kind of reverence is intended.

---

QUICK FACT 2 — JESUS CERTAINLY RECEIVED PROSKYNEŌ

We should not deny what the New Testament actually says.

For example:

MATTHEW 14:33

After Jesus walked upon the water:

“Those who were in the boat worshiped him, saying, ‘You are truly the Son of God!’”

The Greek verb is proskyneō.

Again, after the resurrection:

MATTHEW 28:9

The women:

“…took hold of his feet, and worshiped him.”

And:

MATTHEW 28:17

“When they saw him, they bowed down to him…”

So there is no need to argue that nobody ever performed proskyneō toward Jesus.

THEY DID.

The real question is:

WHAT DOES THAT PROVE ABOUT HIS IDENTITY?

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QUICK FACT 3 — PROSKYNEŌ IS ALSO USED TOWARD HUMAN BEINGS

This is where the argument becomes more complicated.

The biblical concept of bowing down or paying homage is not restricted exclusively to God.

The Greek Old Testament uses proskyneō for people bowing before human beings.

One particularly important example concerns David.

1 CHRONICLES 29:20

The people:

“…bowed down and paid homage to Yahweh and to the king.”

The ancient Greek Septuagint uses proskyneō in this passage.

Yet King David was obviously not Yahweh.

The people could honour God's appointed king without believing that the king was the God of Israel.

Therefore:

RECEIVING PROSKYNEŌ DOES NOT, BY ITSELF, PROVE THAT THE RECIPIENT IS GOD.

Context is essential.

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QUICK FACT 4 — JESUS HIMSELF SAID WHO MUST BE WORSHIPPED AS GOD

Now we come to one of the most important passages.

Satan tempted Jesus:

MATTHEW 4:9

“I will give you all of these things, if you will fall down and worship me.”

Jesus answered:

MATTHEW 4:10

“Get behind me, Satan! For it is written, ‘You shall worship the Lord your God, and you shall serve him only.’”

Jesus quotes Deuteronomy.

Notice where Jesus directs worship:

“THE LORD YOUR GOD.”

And service:

“HIM ONLY.”

Jesus does not tell Satan:

“Worship me because I am your God.”

But we must be careful not to make an argument from silence do more than it can.

A Trinitarian would respond that Jesus is quoting Scripture to reject Satan's demand for worship and that this does not necessarily exclude Jesus from sharing the divine identity.

That response deserves to be acknowledged.

Therefore Matthew 4:10 is important evidence, but the strongest case comes from examining it alongside Jesus' other teachings concerning God and worship.

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QUICK FACT 5 — SATAN CALLED JESUS “THE SON OF GOD”

Immediately before this, Satan says:

MATTHEW 4:3

“If you are the Son of God, command that these stones become bread.”

Again:

MATTHEW 4:6

“If you are the Son of God, throw yourself down…”

The title used is:

SON OF GOD.

Of course, Satan's words do not establish Christian doctrine.

But Matthew's narrative consistently identifies Jesus as God's Son.

The important point is that Scripture gives Jesus the title:

THE SON OF GOD

rather than requiring us to replace it with the later theological expression:

GOD THE SON.

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QUICK FACT 6 — JESUS SAID TRUE WORSHIPPERS WOULD WORSHIP THE FATHER

Jesus' conversation with the Samaritan woman gives us even clearer evidence.

JOHN 4:23

Jesus says:

“But the hour comes, and now is, when the true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and truth, for the Father seeks such to be his worshipers.”

Then:

JOHN 4:24

“God is spirit, and those who worship him must worship in spirit and truth.”

Notice Jesus' language:

THE TRUE WORSHIPPERS WILL WORSHIP THE FATHER.

This is a remarkable statement.

Jesus does not say:

“True worshippers will worship the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit as three persons of the one God.”

Nor does He say here:

“True worshippers will worship me as God.”

He specifically identifies:

THE FATHER

as the object of the true worship He is discussing.

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QUICK FACT 7 — DOES JOHN 4:23 BY ITSELF PROVE JESUS CANNOT BE DIVINE?

Again, we need to be fair.

NO — NOT BY ITSELF.

A Trinitarian can say that worshipping the Father does not logically exclude worshipping the Son.

That is true as a matter of logic.

John 4:23 does not contain the sentence:

“The Father alone is divine and the Son is not.”

But Jesus' statement remains highly significant when combined with His other teachings.

Who does Jesus call:

“THE ONLY TRUE GOD”?

JOHN 17:3

Jesus prays to His Father:

“This is eternal life, that they should know you, the only true God, and him whom you sent, Jesus Christ.”

Jesus distinguishes:

“YOU, THE ONLY TRUE GOD”

from:

“JESUS CHRIST, WHOM YOU SENT.”

That distinction must form part of our investigation.

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QUICK FACT 8 — JESUS ALSO HAS A GOD

After His resurrection, Jesus tells Mary Magdalene:

JOHN 20:17

“I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.”

Notice that these words are spoken by the resurrected Jesus.

He still calls the Father:

“MY GOD.”

The same language appears in Revelation.

REVELATION 3:12

The exalted Jesus repeatedly speaks of:

“MY GOD.”

So whatever honour and glory Jesus receives, the New Testament continues to distinguish Him from the One whom Jesus Himself calls:

MY GOD.

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QUICK FACT 9 — GOD HAS HIGHLY EXALTED JESUS

There is another important reason why Jesus deserves extraordinary honour.

PHILIPPIANS 2:9

“Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name…”

Who exalted Jesus?

GOD DID.

Who received the exaltation?

JESUS DID.

The passage continues:

PHILIPPIANS 2:10–11

“…that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow… and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.”

Jesus receives extraordinary universal honour.

But notice where this ultimately leads:

“TO THE GLORY OF GOD THE FATHER.”

Therefore, honouring God's appointed and exalted Messiah does not automatically require us to identify the Messiah as the God who exalted Him.

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QUICK FACT 10 — GOD COMMANDS HONOUR FOR HIS SON

Jesus deserves tremendous honour.

Jesus Himself says:

JOHN 5:22–23

“For the Father judges no one, but he has given all judgment to the Son, that all may honor the Son, even as they honor the Father.”

This is one of the strongest passages concerning the honour given to Jesus.

It should not be minimized.

But notice again why the Son possesses this authority.

THE FATHER HAS GIVEN IT TO HIM.

The Son is God's authorized judge and Messiah.

Therefore Christians should not dishonour Jesus in an attempt to defend the uniqueness of God.

HONOURING THE SON HONOURS THE FATHER WHO SENT HIM.

The real question is whether such honour means that the Son is the same One God who sent Him.

That conclusion requires more than the fact that Jesus receives homage.

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QUICK FACT 11 — REVELATION SHOWS GOD AND THE LAMB RECEIVING PRAISE

Another important passage appears in Revelation.

REVELATION 5:13

Creation gives blessing, honour, glory and dominion:

“…to him who sits on the throne, and to the Lamb, forever and ever!”

This is extremely exalted language concerning Jesus.

Any serious investigation must acknowledge it.

But Revelation still distinguishes:

THE ONE SITTING ON THE THRONE

from:

THE LAMB.

Revelation 5:7 even describes the Lamb approaching the One seated upon the throne and receiving the scroll from His hand.

Trinitarians understand this as distinction of persons within the one God.

Biblical Unitarians understand it as distinction between God and His exalted Messiah.

The worship language alone does not settle which theological explanation is correct.

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QUICK FACT 12 — WHY DID PEOPLE BOW BEFORE JESUS?

Jesus was no ordinary man.

He was:

THE CHRIST

THE SON OF GOD

THE KING OF ISRAEL

THE LORD AND MESSIAH

THE ONE APPOINTED BY GOD

and:

THE ONE GOD RAISED AND EXALTED.

It should therefore not surprise us that people bowed before Him and paid Him extraordinary homage.

Kings received homage.

God's appointed representatives received honour.

And Jesus is greater than every ordinary human king because God has made Him Lord and Messiah and placed all things under His authority.

The question remains:

DOES RECEIVING HOMAGE AUTOMATICALLY TURN GOD'S MESSIAH INTO GOD HIMSELF?

The vocabulary alone cannot establish that conclusion.

---

QUICK FACT 13 — WHAT ABOUT PASSAGES WHERE WORSHIP OF OTHERS IS REFUSED?

There are passages where proskyneō is refused.

When Cornelius falls before Peter:

ACTS 10:25–26

Peter raises him and says:

“Stand up! I myself am also a man.”

Likewise, when John falls before an angel:

REVELATION 22:8–9

the angel tells him:

“See you don’t do it! … Worship God.”

These passages show that certain forms of religious worship must not be given to God's servants.

So they cannot simply be ignored.

But neither do they change the fact that proskyneō can be used elsewhere for legitimate homage to human rulers.

Again:

CONTEXT DETERMINES THE NATURE OF THE ACT.

The question is not merely:

Was proskyneō performed?

The question is:

What did that act mean in that particular passage?

---

QUICK FACT 14 — DAVID PROVIDES AN IMPORTANT BIBLICAL COMPARISON

Return to:

1 CHRONICLES 29:20

The people bowed before:

YAHWEH

and:

THE KING.

Nobody should conclude:

“Therefore David was Yahweh.”

The same outward action can be directed toward two different recipients without making those recipients ontologically identical.

That does not prove that every instance of homage toward Jesus is merely ordinary human respect.

Jesus clearly receives a uniquely exalted degree of honour.

But it does prove that the act of bowing or proskyneō cannot by itself establish deity.

---

QUICK FACT 15 — THE ONE GOD REMAINS THE FATHER

Paul gives us a remarkably concise statement:

1 CORINTHIANS 8:6

“Yet to us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and we live through him.”

Paul identifies:

ONE GOD — THE FATHER

and:

ONE LORD — JESUS CHRIST.

Trinitarian scholars often argue that Paul is incorporating Jesus into the language of Israel's Shema and therefore including Jesus within the divine identity.

That interpretation deserves to be considered.

But the grammar itself still explicitly identifies:

“ONE GOD, THE FATHER.”

Jesus is then identified as:

“ONE LORD, JESUS CHRIST.”

This distinction is central to my understanding of biblical worship.

---

SO, WAS JESUS WORSHIPPED?

If by “worshipped” we mean:

Did people perform proskyneō toward Jesus?

YES.

The New Testament clearly records this.

If we mean:

Did Jesus receive extraordinary honour, reverence, allegiance and homage?

ABSOLUTELY.

He is God's Christ and His uniquely exalted Son.

But if the question is:

DOES THE WORD PROSKYNEŌ BY ITSELF PROVE THAT JESUS IS THE ONE TRUE GOD?

The answer is:

NO.

The biblical use of the word does not permit that conclusion from the vocabulary alone.

People could bow before kings without believing those kings were God.

David provides a particularly important example.

---

JESUS HIMSELF DIRECTED WORSHIP TO GOD

Jesus said:

MATTHEW 4:10

“You shall worship the Lord your God, and you shall serve him only.”

Jesus said:

JOHN 4:23

“The true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and truth…”

Jesus prayed to the Father:

JOHN 17:3

“…you, the only true God, and him whom you sent, Jesus Christ.”

And after His resurrection Jesus called the Father:

JOHN 20:17

“MY GOD AND YOUR GOD.”

For me, these passages provide the interpretive framework.

---

MY CONCLUSION

Jesus deserves the highest honour God has commanded us to give His Son.

He is the Messiah.

He is the Lord.

He is God's appointed King.

He is the Son of God.

He has been raised from the dead and exalted to God's right hand.

Every knee will bow and every tongue will confess Jesus Christ as Lord:

“TO THE GLORY OF GOD THE FATHER.”

Philippians 2:11

Therefore the question should never be reduced to:

“JESUS WAS WORSHIPPED, THEREFORE JESUS MUST BE GOD.”

The biblical evidence is more nuanced than that.

The word translated “worship” can describe homage given to someone who is not God, while other passages reserve ultimate worship and service for God.

So we must ask not merely whether someone bowed before Jesus, but:

WHO DOES JESUS HIMSELF IDENTIFY AS HIS GOD?

His answer after His resurrection could hardly be clearer:

“MY FATHER AND YOUR FATHER, AND MY GOD AND YOUR GOD.”

JOHN 20:17

And who did Jesus identify as the only true God?

THE FATHER.

JOHN 17:1–3

That is why I believe the New Testament can give Jesus extraordinary honour and homage as God's uniquely appointed and exalted Son without requiring us to conclude from the word “worship” alone that Jesus is the One True God.

---

Research by Simon Brown

wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com

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Bible research image for Quick Facts: Why Did Jesus Not Pre-Exist His Human Birth? The study examines whether Scripture teaches that Jesus was a conscious person in heaven before His miraculous conception and birth through Mary. Research by Simon Brown.

QUICK FACTS: WHY DID JESUS NOT PRE-EXIST HIS HUMAN BIRTH?

Does the Bible Really Teach That Jesus Was a Conscious Person in Heaven Before He Was Born?

Research by Simon Brown

One of the biggest questions concerning the identity of Jesus Christ is this:

DID JESUS PERSONALLY EXIST BEFORE HIS HUMAN BIRTH?

Detailed Bible research infographic examining whether Scripture teaches that Jesus Christ consciously existed in heaven before His human birth. It considers His miraculous conception in Luke 1:35, Jesus as a man and the last Adam, Hebrews 1:1–2, aiōnas or “ages,” John 6:38 and 6:62, John 17:5, Jesus and the angels, foreknowledge, His death and resurrection, and related passages used in the pre-existence debate. Research by Simon Brown.

Traditional Christianity generally teaches that the Son existed consciously in heaven before His birth through Mary.

Jehovah's Witnesses also believe Jesus personally pre-existed His human birth, although they identify Him with Michael the Archangel.

Biblical Unitarians do not all interpret every passage identically, but I have become convinced through my own study that Jesus did not personally exist as a conscious divine or angelic being before His miraculous conception.

That is a significant claim.

So it should not be based upon one isolated verse.

We need to examine the whole biblical picture.

And we must also examine honestly the passages most commonly presented as evidence that Jesus lived in heaven before He was born.

---

QUICK FACT 1 — WHERE DOES THE BIBLE DESCRIBE JESUS' BEGINNING AS GOD'S SON?

The first place we should look is not John 17:5.

It is not John 6:38.

It is not Hebrews 1:2.

We should begin with the biblical account of Jesus' conception.

The angel Gabriel told Mary:

LUKE 1:35

“The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. Therefore also the holy one who is born from you will be called the Son of God.”

Notice the sequence.

THE POWER OF THE MOST HIGH

↓

OVERSHADOWS MARY

↓

THEREFORE

↓

THE CHILD WILL BE CALLED THE SON OF GOD

Matthew gives us the same miraculous origin:

MATTHEW 1:20

“…that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit.”

These passages are extremely important.

Jesus had a human mother, Mary.

But He had no human biological father.

His conception occurred through the miraculous power of God.

For me, this provides the clearest biblical starting point for understanding Jesus as:

THE SON OF GOD.

---

QUICK FACT 2 — JESUS IS REPEATEDLY IDENTIFIED AS A MAN

If Jesus had previously existed as a conscious heavenly being, we might expect the New Testament to explain clearly what kind of being He had been before becoming human.

Instead, Scripture repeatedly identifies Jesus as:

A MAN.

Jesus Himself said:

JOHN 8:40

“But now you seek to kill me, a man who has told you the truth, which I heard from God.”

Peter preached:

ACTS 2:22

“Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved by God…”

Paul wrote:

1 TIMOTHY 2:5

“For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus.”

Notice Paul's distinction:

ONE GOD

and:

THE MAN CHRIST JESUS.

Jesus is God's Messiah, God's Son and the mediator between God and humanity.

His genuine humanity is fundamental to the New Testament presentation of Him.

---

QUICK FACT 3 — JESUS IS THE SECOND MAN AND LAST ADAM

Paul makes an extraordinary comparison between Adam and Jesus:

1 CORINTHIANS 15:45

“The first man Adam became a living soul. The last Adam became a life-giving spirit.”

Then:

1 CORINTHIANS 15:47

“The first man is of the earth, made of dust. The second man is from heaven.”

Jesus is therefore described as:

THE LAST ADAM

and:

THE SECOND MAN.

Adam did not consciously exist before becoming Adam.

He came into existence as a man through God's creative action.

Jesus' origin is different because He was miraculously conceived through Mary rather than formed from the dust.

Nevertheless, Paul's Adam-Christ comparison is important.

Jesus succeeds where Adam failed.

However, we should be careful here.

The fact that Jesus is called the last Adam does not, by itself, logically prove that He could not have pre-existed.

A believer in pre-existence can accept Jesus as the last Adam while maintaining that He existed beforehand.

Therefore this passage belongs to the cumulative evidence, rather than serving as standalone proof.

---

QUICK FACT 4 — WAS JESUS AN ANGEL BEFORE HIS HUMAN BIRTH?

Jehovah's Witnesses teach that Jesus existed before His birth as Michael the Archangel.

But Hebrews makes a strong distinction between the Son and God's angels.

HEBREWS 1:4–5

“…having become so much better than the angels, as he has inherited a more excellent name than they have. For to which of the angels did he say at any time, ‘You are my Son. Today I have begotten you’?”

The writer's question is powerful:

TO WHICH OF THE ANGELS DID GOD EVER SAY: “YOU ARE MY SON”?

The answer is:

NONE OF THEM.

Hebrews distinguishes the Son from the angels.

But again, precision matters.

Hebrews 1:4–5 is strong evidence against identifying Jesus as an angel, but it does not by itself prove that Jesus could not have existed in some other way before His birth.

I have investigated the Michael question separately:

READ: Is Jesus Michael the Archangel?

---

QUICK FACT 5 — WHAT DOES “ONLY BEGOTTEN SON” MEAN?

John 3:16 famously describes Jesus as God's:

ONLY BEGOTTEN SON

Older English translations use “only begotten” for the Greek:

μονογενής — monogenēs

There is an important translation issue here.

Monogenēs can convey the idea of someone who is unique, one-of-a-kind, one and only, while the traditional English expression is “only begotten.”

Therefore, we should not construct the entire question of Jesus' origin merely from the English word “begotten.”

But the larger biblical picture remains extraordinary.

Jesus is not merely another prophet.

He is not merely another righteous man.

He is uniquely:

THE SON OF GOD.

John tells us the purpose of his Gospel:

JOHN 20:31

“…that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God…”

That is the identity John explicitly wants his readers to believe.

I have examined this subject in much greater detail here:

READ: Who Is the True and Only Begotten Son of God?

---

QUICK FACT 6 — WHAT ABOUT JESUS SAYING “I CAME DOWN FROM HEAVEN”?

This is one of the strongest objections to my conclusion.

Jesus says:

JOHN 6:38

“For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me.”

If we read those words completely literally, they can certainly sound as though Jesus is describing travelling from heaven to earth.

But John 6 contains extensive figurative language.

Jesus also calls Himself:

THE BREAD FROM HEAVEN

and tells His listeners about eating His flesh and drinking His blood.

Therefore we need to ask what “coming down from heaven” means in John's theological language.

Something can be described as coming from heaven because God is its source, without requiring that it previously existed as a conscious person physically located in heaven.

The question therefore cannot be settled simply by isolating the expression:

“CAME DOWN FROM HEAVEN.”

I have investigated John 6:38 separately in detail:

READ: How Did Jesus Come Down From Heaven, If He Was Not in Heaven?

---

QUICK FACT 7 — WHAT ABOUT “WHERE HE WAS BEFORE” IN JOHN 6:62?

This is even more challenging.

Jesus asks:

JOHN 6:62

“Then what if you would see the Son of Man ascending to where he was before?”

Many Christians understand this as:

Jesus previously lived in heaven, came down to earth, and would eventually return to the heaven where He had formerly lived.

That is certainly a possible interpretation.

But notice something important.

John 6:62 itself does not explicitly contain the word “heaven.”

Jesus says:

“WHERE HE WAS BEFORE.”

The Greek verb translated ascending is:

ἀναβαίνω — anabainō

which broadly means to go up, come up, rise or ascend, depending upon context.

And the surrounding chapter repeatedly discusses Jesus being raised up at the last day.

This opens another interpretive possibility that deserves examination.

I have therefore devoted an entire new study to this verse:

READ: John 6:62 — Does “Ascending to Where He Was Before” Prove Jesus Lived in Heaven Before His Birth?

The important point is this:

JOHN 6:62 DOES NOT ITSELF SAY: “I LIVED IN HEAVEN BEFORE I WAS BORN.”

That conclusion must be inferred.

---

QUICK FACT 8 — DID JESUS SAY HE WAS “GOING BACK” TO GOD?

Another argument for personal pre-existence comes from passages such as John 13:3 and John 16:28.

English translations can give readers the impression that Jesus said He was returning or going back to God.

But when we investigated the Greek carefully, something important emerged.

JOHN 13:3

contains:

ὑπάγει πρὸς τὸν θεόν

meaning Jesus is going to/toward God.

And John 16:28 contains:

πορεύομαι πρὸς τὸν πατέρα

meaning:

“I GO / AM GOING TO THE FATHER.”

There is no separate Greek word there meaning “back.”

That does not prove Jesus did not pre-exist.

Context can sometimes justify an English expression such as “going back.”

But we should distinguish between:

WHAT THE GREEK ACTUALLY SAYS

and:

WHAT A TRANSLATOR BELIEVES THE SENTENCE IMPLIES.

I have investigated both passages here:

READ: John 13:3 & John 16:28 — Did Jesus Really Say He Was “Returning” or “Going Back” to God?

---

QUICK FACT 9 — DID GOD SPEAK THROUGH HIS SON IN OLD TESTAMENT TIMES?

This brings us to one of our newest and most important investigations:

HEBREWS 1:1–2.

Hebrews begins:

“God, having spoken long ago to our fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, in these last days has spoken to us in His Son…”

Look carefully at the contrast:

LONG AGO

GOD SPOKE IN THE PROPHETS.

But:

IN THESE LAST DAYS

GOD HAS SPOKEN IN HIS SON.

This raises an important question.

If the Son personally existed and had already been God's spokesman throughout Old Testament history, why does Hebrews contrast God's former revelation through the prophets with His revelation in His Son in these last days?

Does this prove all by itself that Jesus did not exist?

NO.

Hebrews does not explicitly say:

“The Son did not exist before these last days.”

A Trinitarian can answer that the eternal Son existed but became God's climactic revelation to humanity through the incarnation.

Nevertheless, Hebrews itself does not identify the Son as God's Old Testament spokesman in these verses.

This deserves serious consideration.

We have now investigated this question in a complete separate study:

READ: Quick Facts — Hebrews 1:1–2: Did God Speak Through His Son in Old Testament Times?

---

QUICK FACT 10 — DOES HEBREWS 1:2 SAY JESUS CREATED THE “UNIVERSE”?

Hebrews 1:2 is frequently presented as decisive evidence for personal pre-existence because many English Bibles say that God made the:

“worlds”

or:

“universe”

through the Son.

But the Greek word is:

αἰῶνας — AIŌNAS

the plural of:

αἰών — AIŌN

whose basic temporal meaning is:

AGE.

Therefore:

τοὺς αἰῶνας — tous aiōnas

can be directly rendered:

THE AGES.

The Greek does not contain kosmos, the familiar word for “world.”

However, we must represent the translation issue fairly.

Greek lexicons recognize that aiōn can sometimes be used by extension for the world or created order. Therefore translations such as “worlds” and “universe” represent an interpretive understanding of aiōnas; we should not simply call them fabricated words.

The question is whether that interpretation is correct in Hebrews 1:2.

I have already devoted an entire investigation to precisely this question:

READ: Hebrews 1:2 — Has the Greek Word Been Mistranslated as “Worlds” or “Universe”?

This is particularly important because translating aiōnas as “universe” can make the verse sound as though it explicitly says:

GOD CREATED THE GENESIS UNIVERSE THROUGH A PRE-EXISTENT JESUS.

But that is an interpretation that must be demonstrated from the context.

It should not simply be assumed from the English translation.

---

QUICK FACT 11 — “GOD WAS IN CHRIST”

The Bible does teach something extraordinary about God's relationship with Jesus.

Paul writes:

2 CORINTHIANS 5:19

“God was in Christ reconciling the world to himself…”

Jesus similarly said:

JOHN 14:10

“The Father who lives in me does his works.”

These statements are extremely important.

God worked in and through His Son.

But saying:

GOD WAS IN CHRIST

is not grammatically identical to saying:

CHRIST IS THE GOD WHO WAS IN HIM.

Jesus repeatedly distinguishes Himself from His Father.

He prays to Him.

He obeys Him.

He is sent by Him.

He receives authority from Him.

He calls Him:

“MY GOD.”

Therefore, God's presence and activity in Jesus should not automatically be converted into an assertion that Jesus is numerically identical with the God who dwells in Him.

---

QUICK FACT 12 — JESUS REALLY DIED, AND GOD RAISED HIM

The Gospel proclaims that:

JESUS DIED.

And then:

GOD RAISED JESUS FROM THE DEAD.

Peter proclaimed:

ACTS 2:32

“This Jesus God raised up…”

Again:

ACTS 3:15

“…whom God raised from the dead.”

Paul writes:

ROMANS 10:9

“…believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead…”

This creates an important distinction:

GOD RAISED

and:

JESUS WAS RAISED.

However, we should represent traditional Trinitarian theology correctly.

Trinitarians do not normally teach that the divine nature ceased to exist when Jesus died.

They believe the Son truly experienced human death according to His human nature while remaining divine.

Therefore simply saying:

“God cannot die, Jesus died, therefore Jesus cannot be God”

does not fully address the traditional two-natures explanation.

The deeper question is whether Scripture itself teaches that Jesus possesses two complete natures—divine and human—in the theological sense later defined by Christianity.

That question must be investigated separately.

---

QUICK FACT 13 — WAS JESUS FOREKNOWN BEFORE THE FOUNDATION OF THE WORLD?

Peter gives us another important passage:

1 PETER 1:20

Jesus was:

“foreknown indeed before the foundation of the world, but was revealed at the end of times for your sake.”

This introduces an extremely important biblical concept:

FOREKNOWLEDGE.

Something—or someone—can be present in God's plan and foreknowledge before appearing historically.

God's foreknowledge does not require us automatically to conclude that the person consciously existed at the time God foreknew them.

The question therefore becomes:

When Scripture speaks of Christ before His birth, is it describing:

PERSONAL CONSCIOUS EXISTENCE?

or:

EXISTENCE IN GOD'S FOREKNOWLEDGE, PURPOSE AND PLAN?

Different passages must be examined individually rather than assuming the answer beforehand.

---

QUICK FACT 14 — BUT WHAT ABOUT JOHN 17:5?

We cannot write a serious article questioning Jesus' personal pre-existence and ignore what may be one of the strongest passages used to support it.

Jesus prayed:

JOHN 17:5

“Now, Father, glorify me with your own self with the glory which I had with you before the world existed.”

On a straightforward reading, this can certainly sound like Jesus remembers personally possessing glory with the Father before creation.

That is why this verse deserves serious weight.

The traditional interpretation understands Jesus as referring to glory He personally possessed with the Father before His incarnation.

There is, however, another interpretation.

Scripture can speak of things as belonging to people in God's predetermined plan before they actually receive them historically.

Jesus speaks in the same prayer about glory being given to His disciples:

JOHN 17:22

“The glory which you have given me, I have given to them…”

Yet their ultimate glorification was still future.

Peter likewise says Christ was foreknown before the foundation of the world.

Therefore some interpreters understand John 17:5 in terms of the glory prepared for Christ in God's foreknowledge and purpose.

I do not think we should pretend John 17:5 is an easy verse for either side.

It is one of the passages that must be weighed carefully in the cumulative case.

---

QUICK FACT 15 — “COMING FROM GOD” DOES NOT AUTOMATICALLY MEAN PRE-EXISTING AS A PERSON

Jesus repeatedly speaks of being:

sent by God

and:

coming from God.

But biblical language of heavenly origin does not always require literal personal descent from heaven.

John the Baptist says:

JOHN 3:27

“A man can receive nothing unless it has been given him from heaven.”

James writes:

JAMES 1:17

“Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father…”

God is the ultimate source of what comes from heaven.

Therefore when Jesus says He came from God, we still have to determine from the context whether He is describing:

literal movement from a former heavenly residence

or:

divine origin, commissioning and authority.

We should not simply assume either conclusion.

---

QUICK FACT 16 — WHAT ABOUT “TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU”?

This is another point where precision is essential.

Hebrews 1:5 quotes Psalm 2:7:

“You are my Son. Today I have begotten you.”

We should not take this verse to mean that Jesus first became God's Son when He was resurrected.

Jesus was already God's Son before His death.

Luke 1:35 directly connects Jesus' Sonship with His miraculous conception:

“The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. Therefore also the holy one who is born from you will be called the Son of God.”

For the question of Jesus' origin, Luke 1:35 is therefore extremely important.

Psalm 2:7, however, is royal Messianic language concerning God's anointed King.

The New Testament can apply:

“TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU”

in contexts of Christ's appointment, declaration and exaltation.

Acts 13:33 uses Psalm 2:7 in a passage associated with God's fulfilment concerning Jesus, while Hebrews 5:5 uses the same Psalm in connection with Christ's appointment as High Priest.

Therefore we should keep two ideas distinct:

LUKE 1:35 — JESUS' MIRACULOUS CONCEPTION AND SONSHIP

and:

PSALM 2:7 — ROYAL MESSIANIC BEGETTING / APPOINTMENT LANGUAGE

Psalm 2:7 should not by itself be used to determine the precise moment Jesus first came into existence.

---

QUICK FACT 17 — WHAT WOULD A BELIEVER IN PERSONAL PRE-EXISTENCE SAY?

To investigate this fairly, we need to hear the strongest opposing case.

A Trinitarian Christian may argue:

The eternal Son personally existed with the Father before creation.

God created through the Son.

The Son came from heaven and became genuinely human without ceasing to possess His divine nature.

John 17:5 remembers the glory He actually possessed before creation.

John 6:62 describes His return to His former heavenly position.

Hebrews 1:2 describes creation of the universe through Him.

And:

Hebrews 1:1–2 merely says God's final revelation came through the incarnate Son in the last days; it does not say the Son did not previously exist.

That is a coherent interpretation of these passages.

Therefore my conclusion cannot simply be:

“ONE VERSE PROVES EVERYBODY ELSE WRONG.”

The real question is:

WHICH INTERPRETATION BEST FITS THE WHOLE BIBLICAL PICTURE?

---

QUICK FACT 18 — THE CUMULATIVE BIBLICAL PICTURE

This is where I believe the evidence becomes particularly significant.

Consider the picture we have assembled:

Jesus is miraculously conceived through God's power in Mary.

Luke 1:35 connects this event with His identity as God's Son.

Jesus is repeatedly called a man.

Paul calls Him the second man and last Adam.

Hebrews distinguishes the Son from God's angels.

Jesus is God's appointed Messiah and heir.

God speaks through the prophets long ago but through His Son “in these last days.”

The Greek of Hebrews 1:2 says aiōnas—“ages”—rather than literally using the word “universe.”

Jesus' statements about coming from heaven and going to the Father require interpretation and do not contain the complete sentence “I consciously lived in heaven before I was born.”

Jesus was foreknown before the foundation of the world.

God worked in and through Jesus.

Jesus genuinely died, and God raised Him from the dead.

None of these observations individually proves the entire case.

But together they create what I believe is a powerful cumulative argument.

---

SO DID JESUS PERSONALLY EXIST BEFORE HIS HUMAN BIRTH?

After examining these passages together, my conclusion is:

I DO NOT BELIEVE THE BIBLE REQUIRES A CONSCIOUS, PERSONAL PRE-EXISTENCE OF JESUS BEFORE HIS MIRACULOUS CONCEPTION.

I believe Scripture presents Jesus as the promised Messiah who existed beforehand in:

GOD'S FOREKNOWLEDGE

GOD'S PURPOSE

GOD'S PROMISES

GOD'S PROPHECIES

and:

GOD'S PLAN FOR THE AGES.

Then, when the appointed time came, God's promise became historical reality.

Mary was told:

LUKE 1:35

“The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. Therefore also the holy one who is born from you will be called the Son of God.”

The Messiah was conceived.

The Son was born.

The promised descendant of David appeared.

And God ultimately revealed Himself through the man He had appointed:

JESUS CHRIST — THE SON OF GOD.

---

JESUS IS NOT MICHAEL THE ARCHANGEL

The evidence also leads me to reject the Jehovah's Witness teaching that Jesus previously existed as Michael.

Hebrews distinguishes Jesus from God's angels, and nowhere does Scripture explicitly say:

“Jesus is Michael.”

Jesus identifies Himself as:

THE CHRIST

THE SON OF GOD

THE SON OF MAN

and Paul calls Him:

“THE MAN CHRIST JESUS.”

The Bible gives us no need to turn Jesus into Michael before His birth.

READ MY FULL STUDY: Is Jesus Michael the Archangel?

---

THE FINAL QUESTION

If Jesus personally existed as a conscious heavenly being before His human birth, then somewhere in Scripture we should expect that doctrine to emerge clearly when all of the relevant passages are examined together.

But we should not create that conclusion merely by inserting assumptions into phrases such as:

“came down from heaven”

“where He was before”

“going to the Father”

or by turning:

AIŌNAS — “AGES”

automatically into:

“THE PHYSICAL UNIVERSE.”

Each passage deserves to be investigated in its own context.

And that is exactly what these related studies are designed to do.

---

RELATED RESEARCH — IMPORTANT COMPANION STUDIES

HEBREWS 1:1–2 — DID GOD SPEAK THROUGH HIS SON IN OLD TESTAMENT TIMES?

This new study examines the remarkable contrast between God speaking through the prophets long ago and speaking in His Son in these last days.

READ THE NEW HEBREWS 1:1–2 STUDY

HEBREWS 1:2 — HAS THE GREEK WORD BEEN MISTRANSLATED AS “WORLDS” OR “UNIVERSE”?

A detailed examination of αἰῶνας (aiōnas), “ages,” and whether Hebrews 1:2 explicitly says God created the Genesis universe through Jesus.

READ THE HEBREWS 1:2 GREEK STUDY

JOHN 6:62 — DOES “ASCENDING TO WHERE HE WAS BEFORE” PROVE JESUS LIVED IN HEAVEN BEFORE HIS BIRTH?

A detailed examination of Jesus' words, the Greek verb anabainō, and the surrounding resurrection context.

READ THE JOHN 6:62 STUDY

JOHN 13:3 & JOHN 16:28 — DID JESUS REALLY SAY HE WAS “RETURNING” OR “GOING BACK” TO GOD?

An examination of the Greek text behind Jesus' statements about going to God and going to the Father.

READ THE JOHN 13:3 & JOHN 16:28 STUDY

HOW DID JESUS COME DOWN FROM HEAVEN, IF HE WAS NOT IN HEAVEN?

A companion study examining the important “came down from heaven” language in John 6.

READ THE JOHN 6 STUDY

WHO IS THE TRUE AND ONLY BEGOTTEN SON OF GOD?

A separate study examining Jesus' Sonship, monogenēs, His miraculous conception and His identity as God's unique Son. (Real Discoveries)

READ THE ONLY BEGOTTEN SON STUDY

IS JESUS MICHAEL THE ARCHANGEL?

A detailed examination of the Jehovah's Witness identification of Jesus with Michael and the distinction Hebrews makes between the Son and the angels. (Real Discoveries)

READ THE MICHAEL THE ARCHANGEL STUDY

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“THERE IS ONE GOD AND ONE MEDIATOR BETWEEN GOD AND MEN, THE MAN CHRIST JESUS.”

1 TIMOTHY 2:5

Research by Simon Brown

wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com

 

Detailed Bible research infographic examining Hebrews 1:1–2, the contrast between God speaking through the prophets in former times and speaking through His Son in these last days, and what this means for the question of Jesus Christ’s personal pre-existence. Research by Simon Brown.

QUICK FACTS: HEBREWS 1:1–2 — DID GOD SPEAK THROUGH HIS SON IN OLD TESTAMENT TIMES?

If Jesus Personally Existed Before His Birth, Why Does Hebrews Say God Has Spoken Through His Son “In These Last Days”?

Research by Simon Brown

Hebrews 1:1–2 is one of the most important passages in the entire discussion about the pre-existence of Jesus Christ.

Many Christians believe Jesus personally existed in heaven before His human birth and that God worked and spoke through Him throughout Old Testament history.

But when the writer of Hebrews introduces the Son, he makes a remarkable contrast.

He tells us how God spoke in the past, and then tells us how God has spoken “in these last days.”

So before assuming what Hebrews teaches about Jesus’ pre-existence, we need to examine exactly what the passage says.

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Detailed Quick Facts Bible research infographic examining Hebrews 1:1–2, God speaking through the prophets in former times and through His Son in these last days, Jesus as God's appointed heir, the Greek word aiōnas meaning ages, Hebrews 11:3, and the biblical question of Jesus Christ's personal pre-existence. Research by Simon Brown.

HEBREWS 1:1–2

“God, having spoken long ago to our fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, in these last days has spoken to us in His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the ages.”

The Greek opening establishes a striking contrast:

πάλαι — palai

long ago / formerly

and:

ἐπ’ ἐσχάτου τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων

in these last days

The writer therefore places two periods of divine revelation side by side:

LONG AGO → GOD SPOKE IN THE PROPHETS

THESE LAST DAYS → GOD SPOKE IN HIS SON

And that immediately raises an important question:

IF GOD HAD ALREADY BEEN SPEAKING THROUGH HIS SON THROUGHOUT OLD TESTAMENT HISTORY, WHY DOES HEBREWS INTRODUCE GOD’S SPEAKING IN HIS SON AS THE REVELATION OF “THESE LAST DAYS”?

Let us investigate.

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QUICK FACT 1 — WHO IS DOING THE SPEAKING?

The subject of Hebrews 1:1 is:

GOD

It is God who spoke long ago.

It is God who spoke through the prophets.

And it is the same God who has now spoken in His Son.

Notice the relationship:

GOD → spoke through the prophets

and:

GOD → has spoken in His Son

The prophets were God’s messengers.

The Son is presented as God’s climactic revelation.

The passage therefore distinguishes the God who speaks from the Son through whom God speaks.

This distinction by itself does not settle every question concerning the nature of Jesus. Trinitarians also distinguish the Father from the Son.

But we should first allow Hebrews to establish its own categories before imposing a theological conclusion upon the passage.

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QUICK FACT 2 — HOW DID GOD SPEAK “LONG AGO”?

Hebrews tells us:

“God, having spoken LONG AGO to our fathers IN THE PROPHETS…”

The Greek word:

πάλαι — palai

means:

long ago

formerly

in time past

And who does Hebrews identify as God’s means of revelation during that former period?

THE PROPHETS.

This is significant.

The writer could have said:

God formerly spoke through His Son and through the prophets.

He could have said:

God’s Son spoke through the prophets.

He could have said:

God has always spoken through His Son.

But Hebrews 1:1 does not say any of these things.

Instead:

GOD SPOKE IN THE PROPHETS.

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QUICK FACT 3 — SOMETHING CHANGES “IN THESE LAST DAYS”

Hebrews then contrasts that earlier period with another:

“In these last days has spoken to us in His Son…”

This is one of the central observations of the passage.

We have:

FORMERLY

God spoke in the prophets.

Then:

IN THESE LAST DAYS

God spoke in His Son.

Therefore we have to ask:

WHEN DOES HEBREWS PLACE GOD’S SPEAKING IN HIS SON?

Its answer is:

“IN THESE LAST DAYS.”

If the Son had already been God’s personal spokesman throughout Old Testament history, why does Hebrews introduce God’s speaking in His Son in this way?

That is a legitimate question that the doctrine of personal pre-existence must address.

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QUICK FACT 4 — DOES THIS ALONE PROVE JESUS DID NOT PRE-EXIST?

We need to be precise.

NO — NOT BY ITSELF.

Hebrews 1:1–2 does not explicitly say:

“The Son did not exist before these last days.”

Therefore, we should not make the passage say something it does not literally say.

A Trinitarian, or another Christian who believes in personal pre-existence, can argue:

The Son existed before His human birth, but God’s climactic revelation through His Son occurred only in these last days.

That is a possible interpretation.

But an important question remains:

IF THE SON WAS PERSONALLY ACTIVE THROUGHOUT OLD TESTAMENT HISTORY, DOES HEBREWS IDENTIFY HIM AS GOD’S SPOKESMAN DURING THAT FORMER PERIOD?

In Hebrews 1:1–2:

IT DOES NOT.

Instead, Hebrews contrasts:

THE PROPHETS THEN

with:

THE SON NOW.

That observation does not by itself prove non-pre-existence.

But it is important evidence that deserves serious consideration.

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QUICK FACT 5 — THE SON IS “APPOINTED HEIR”

Hebrews continues:

“…His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things…”

Again notice who performs the action.

GOD APPOINTS

and:

THE SON IS APPOINTED.

The Greek word translated heir is:

κληρονόμον — klēronomon

The Son receives the position of heir from God.

This fits a pattern found elsewhere in Scripture.

MATTHEW 28:18

Jesus said:

“All authority has been given to me in heaven and on earth.”

ACTS 2:36

Peter declared:

“God has made him both Lord and Christ, this Jesus whom you crucified.”

PHILIPPIANS 2:9

Paul wrote:

“Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name.”

The recurring pattern is:

GOD GIVES

GOD APPOINTS

GOD EXALTS

and:

JESUS RECEIVES.

This distinction deserves careful attention when asking who Hebrews understands the Son to be.

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QUICK FACT 6 — BUT DOESN’T HEBREWS 1:2 SAY JESUS CREATED THE UNIVERSE?

This is one of the most important objections.

Many English Bibles end Hebrews 1:2 with wording such as:

“through whom He made the worlds”

or:

“through whom He made the universe.”

At first sight this appears to settle the question.

If God created the physical universe through Jesus, then Jesus would necessarily have existed before His human birth.

But what does the Greek actually say?

Hebrews reads:

δι’ οὗ καὶ ἐποίησεν τοὺς αἰῶνας

di’ hou kai epoiēsen tous aiōnas

The crucial word is:

αἰῶνας — AIŌNAS

It is the plural of:

αἰών — aiōn

whose basic temporal meaning is:

AGE

Therefore:

τοὺς αἰῶνας — tous aiōnas

can be directly rendered:

THE AGES.

The Greek text does not contain κόσμος (kosmos), the familiar Greek word for “world.”

That distinction matters.

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QUICK FACT 7 — THEN WHY DO SOME TRANSLATIONS SAY “WORLDS” OR “UNIVERSE”?

This needs to be represented fairly.

The English words “worlds” and “universe” are not the literal lexical form appearing in Hebrews 1:2.

The Greek word is:

AIŌNAS — AGES.

However, that does not automatically mean that every translation using “worlds” or “universe” is fraudulent or deliberately mistranslated.

Greek lexicons recognize that aiōn can sometimes be used more broadly or metonymically in connection with the world or created order existing through the ages.

Some translators therefore understand Hebrews 1:2 as referring to the universe.

But that is an interpretive rendering of aiōnas.

The actual Greek word remains:

AIŌNAS

AGES.

Therefore we need to distinguish two separate questions:

WHAT GREEK WORD DID HEBREWS USE?

AIŌNAS — AGES.

And:

WHAT DID THE WRITER MEAN BY “AGES”?

That second question requires interpretation.

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QUICK FACT 8 — WE HAVE ALREADY INVESTIGATED “AIŌNAS” IN DETAIL

Because this question is so important, I have already conducted a separate investigation devoted specifically to Hebrews 1:2:

HEBREWS 1:2 — HAS THE GREEK WORD BEEN MISTRANSLATED AS “WORLDS” OR “UNIVERSE”?

In that study I examine the Greek word:

αἰῶνας — aiōnas

I examine why “ages” directly represents the Greek word, why many English translations instead use “worlds” or “universe,” and what difference this makes to claims that Hebrews 1:2 proves Jesus created the Genesis universe.

READ THE FULL HEBREWS 1:2 STUDY

This detailed investigation is important because Hebrews 1:2 should not simply be paraphrased as:

“God created the physical universe through Jesus before Jesus was born.”

That is an interpretation of the verse.

It is not the literal wording of the Greek.

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QUICK FACT 9 — “THROUGH WHOM HE MADE THE AGES”

Now consider the wording in context:

“…His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the ages.”

The Greek verb is:

ἐποίησεν — epoiēsen

from:

ποιέω — poieō

which can mean:

to make

to do

to produce

to bring about

depending upon context.

This creates an important interpretive question.

Is Hebrews saying:

God created the physical Genesis universe through a personally pre-existent Son?

Or is the writer speaking about:

God bringing about or ordering the ages of His purpose through the Messiah who stands at the centre of those ages?

The first is the traditional interpretation.

The second takes seriously the temporal meaning of:

AIŌNAS — AGES.

We therefore cannot settle Jesus’ personal pre-existence merely by replacing aiōnas with the English word “universe” and then using that translation as proof of the doctrine.

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QUICK FACT 10 — JESUS IS AT THE CENTRE OF GOD’S PLAN FOR THE AGES

The idea that God’s purposes and ages reach their fulfilment through Christ is certainly found elsewhere in the New Testament.

Paul speaks about God’s:

EPHESIANS 3:11

“eternal purpose which he accomplished in Christ Jesus our Lord.”

And Hebrews itself later speaks of Christ appearing:

HEBREWS 9:26

“…at the completion of the ages…”

Jesus stands at the centre and climax of God’s purpose for human history.

Therefore, understanding Hebrews 1:2 in relation to God’s ages and purposes is something that deserves careful consideration.

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QUICK FACT 11 — WHAT ABOUT HEBREWS 11:3?

This verse must also be considered because Hebrews uses aiōnas again:

HEBREWS 11:3

“By faith we understand that the ages were prepared by the word of God…”

Again the Greek contains:

τοὺς αἰῶνας — TOUS AIŌNAS

THE AGES.

Many English translations again render the expression “worlds” or “universe.”

This is one reason some scholars understand aiōnas in Hebrews as encompassing the created world.

But notice something else.

Hebrews 11:3 says they were prepared:

BY THE WORD OF GOD.

It does not explicitly say:

“Jesus Christ created them.”

Connecting “the word of God” in Hebrews 11:3 directly with a personally pre-existent Jesus is itself an interpretation.

Again we must distinguish:

WHAT THE TEXT ACTUALLY SAYS

from:

OUR INTERPRETATION OF THE TEXT.

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QUICK FACT 12 — THE SON IS NOT AN ANGEL

A few verses later Hebrews says:

HEBREWS 1:5

“For to which of the angels did He ever say, ‘You are my Son. Today I have begotten you’?”

And:

“I will be to him a Father, and he will be to me a Son.”

Whatever interpretation we ultimately give these quotations, one point is clear:

THE SON IS DISTINGUISHED FROM THE ANGELS.

This is particularly important when considering theories that Jesus existed before His birth as an angelic being.

Hebrews establishes a strong distinction between:

THE SON

and:

THE ANGELS.

Therefore Hebrews 1 does not identify Jesus as Michael, Gabriel or another angel.

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QUICK FACT 13 — WHAT DOES “TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU” MEAN?

Hebrews 1:5 quotes Psalm 2:7:

“You are My Son; today I have begotten You.”

This requires careful treatment because the word “begotten” can easily cause confusion.

First, we need to establish something very important:

JESUS WAS ALREADY GOD’S SON BEFORE HIS RESURRECTION.

The resurrection did not make Jesus God’s Son for the first time.

The miraculous conception account takes us much earlier.

LUKE 1:35

The angel tells Mary:

“The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. Therefore also the holy one who is born from you will be called the Son of God.”

Notice the connection:

THE POWER OF THE MOST HIGH OVERSHADOWS MARY

THEREFORE

THE CHILD WILL BE CALLED THE SON OF GOD.

For the question of Jesus’ origin and birth, this passage is extremely important.

Jesus did not first become God’s Son at His resurrection.

He was already:

THE SON OF GOD

during His earthly ministry.

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BUT THEN WHY DOES HEBREWS SAY:

“TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU”?

Because Hebrews 1:5 is quoting:

PSALM 2:7.

Psalm 2 concerns God’s anointed King.

Therefore “Today I have begotten You” can function as royal Messianic language connected with God’s appointment, declaration and exaltation of His chosen King.

This becomes especially interesting because the New Testament quotes the same Psalm in Acts.

ACTS 13:33

“You are my Son. Today I have begotten you.”

Acts uses Psalm 2:7 in a context concerning God’s fulfilment of His promises in Jesus, with resurrection language immediately surrounding the discussion.

Hebrews itself quotes Psalm 2:7 again in:

HEBREWS 5:5

where the context concerns Christ’s appointment as High Priest.

Therefore:

“TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU” DOES NOT REQUIRE US TO CONCLUDE THAT JESUS FIRST BECAME GOD’S SON AT HIS RESURRECTION.

Nor should we automatically assume that Psalm 2:7 is identifying the exact moment Jesus first came into existence.

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AN IMPORTANT DISTINCTION

We should therefore keep two biblical ideas separate.

THE MIRACULOUS CONCEPTION — LUKE 1:35

God acts miraculously upon Mary, and the resulting child is identified as:

THE SON OF GOD.

But:

PSALM 2:7 / HEBREWS 1:5

“Today I have begotten You” can function as royal and Messianic language concerning God’s appointment, declaration and exaltation of His Son.

Therefore we should not confuse the two uses.

For the question:

WHEN DID JESUS FIRST COME INTO EXISTENCE?

Luke 1:35 is much more directly relevant to the discussion than simply assuming Psalm 2:7 describes His biological beginning.

This distinction becomes extremely important in our larger investigation of whether Jesus personally existed before His miraculous conception.

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QUICK FACT 14 — HEBREWS DOES NOT IDENTIFY JESUS AS AN OLD TESTAMENT PROPHET OR ANGEL

Hebrews 1 does not tell us:

Jesus was Gabriel.

It does not tell us:

Jesus was Michael.

It does not tell us:

Jesus was an unnamed angel.

Nor does Hebrews 1:1 tell us:

God formerly spoke through His Son.

Instead, its opening sequence is:

GOD

↓

SPOKE LONG AGO THROUGH THE PROPHETS

↓

IN THESE LAST DAYS SPOKE IN HIS SON

That is what the passage explicitly gives us.

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QUICK FACT 15 — WHAT DOES THE TRADITIONAL PRE-EXISTENCE INTERPRETATION SAY?

To investigate this fairly, we must understand the opposing interpretation correctly.

Trinitarian Christianity does not normally claim that Jesus was an angel before His birth.

It teaches that the eternal Son existed personally with the Father before creation and that God created the universe through the Son.

Under this interpretation:

Hebrews 1:1–2 does not mean that the Son only began existing in the last days.

Instead, it means that although the Son already existed, God’s definitive revelation through the incarnate Son occurred in these last days.

And aiōnas is understood broadly as the created universe or the ages together with everything contained within them.

That is a coherent theological interpretation and should be represented accurately.

But we must still ask:

IS THAT WHAT HEBREWS EXPLICITLY SAYS?

Or is that conclusion being drawn by interpreting several statements together through an already-established doctrine of pre-existence?

That is precisely what we are testing.

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QUICK FACT 16 — THE OPENING CONTRAST STILL HAS TO BE EXPLAINED

After considering the traditional interpretation, we return to the opening words.

Hebrews makes a clear historical contrast:

LONG AGO

GOD SPOKE IN THE PROPHETS.

Then:

IN THESE LAST DAYS

GOD SPOKE IN HIS SON.

The passage does not explicitly say:

God spoke through His Son throughout Old Testament history and continued speaking through Him in these last days.

Instead, it distinguishes God’s former prophetic revelation from His climactic revelation in the Son.

Therefore, anyone arguing that the Son was God’s active personal spokesman throughout Old Testament history still needs to establish that proposition from other passages.

HEBREWS 1:1–2 DOES NOT SAY IT.

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QUICK FACT 17 — THIS CONNECTS DIRECTLY WITH THE PRE-EXISTENCE QUESTION

This is why Hebrews 1:1–2 belongs alongside several other passages we have recently investigated.

Jesus says:

JOHN 6:38

“I have come down from heaven…”

Does that necessarily describe a conscious person literally descending from a former heavenly existence?

Jesus later says:

JOHN 6:62

“What if you would see the Son of Man ascending to where he was before?”

Does that explicitly mean:

“returning to heaven where I consciously lived before my birth”?

And in John 13:3 and John 16:28, does the Greek actually contain a separate word meaning Jesus was “going back” or “returning” to God?

I have investigated these questions separately.

JOHN 6:62 — DOES “ASCENDING TO WHERE HE WAS BEFORE” PROVE JESUS LIVED IN HEAVEN BEFORE HIS BIRTH?

READ THE JOHN 6:62 STUDY

JOHN 13:3 & JOHN 16:28 — DID JESUS REALLY SAY HE WAS “RETURNING” OR “GOING BACK” TO GOD?

READ THE JOHN 13:3 & JOHN 16:28 STUDY

These studies are important because no single verse should be isolated from the cumulative biblical evidence.

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SO, DID GOD SPEAK THROUGH HIS SON IN OLD TESTAMENT TIMES?

Hebrews 1:1–2 does not explicitly tell us that the Son was God’s spokesman during Old Testament history.

What it explicitly tells us is:

1. GOD SPOKE LONG AGO.

2. GOD SPOKE TO THE FATHERS IN THE PROPHETS.

3. GOD HAS NOW SPOKEN TO US IN HIS SON.

4. THIS REVELATION IN THE SON IS ASSOCIATED WITH “THESE LAST DAYS.”

5. GOD APPOINTED THE SON HEIR OF ALL THINGS.

6. GOD MADE THE AIŌNAS — “AGES” — THROUGH HIM.

The disputed question is what that final statement means.

Does aiōnas encompass the physical universe, as the traditional interpretation understands it?

Or does it retain its temporal emphasis and concern the ages of God’s purpose, with the Messiah standing at their centre?

The Greek itself gives us:

AIŌNAS — AGES.

That question therefore deserves to be settled by context rather than by simply assuming that the English word “universe” proves personal pre-existence.

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THE QUESTION HEBREWS LEAVES US WITH

If Jesus personally existed before His human birth, that claim must ultimately stand upon the cumulative evidence of Scripture.

But Hebrews 1:1–2 presents us with a question that should not be brushed aside:

IF GOD HAD ALREADY BEEN SPEAKING THROUGH HIS SON THROUGHOUT OLD TESTAMENT HISTORY, WHY DOES HEBREWS SAY THAT GOD SPOKE THROUGH THE PROPHETS “LONG AGO,” BUT HAS SPOKEN IN HIS SON “IN THESE LAST DAYS”?

The passage does not explicitly say that Jesus did not exist before His birth.

We should acknowledge that.

But neither does it say that the Son was God’s Old Testament spokesman.

Instead, the writer introduces the Son as God’s climactic revelation:

“IN THESE LAST DAYS.”

For me, this forms an important part of the cumulative biblical case against the doctrine of a consciously pre-existent Jesus.

And when Hebrews 1:1–2 is considered alongside the miraculous conception in Luke 1:35, Jesus’ genuine humanity, the Adam-Christ comparison, and the passages we have separately examined concerning “coming down from heaven,” “where He was before,” and “going to the Father,” the question of personal pre-existence deserves much closer examination than it is often given.

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RELATED RESEARCH

HEBREWS 1:2 — HAS THE GREEK WORD BEEN MISTRANSLATED AS “WORLDS” OR “UNIVERSE”?

READ ARTICLE

JOHN 6:62 — DOES “ASCENDING TO WHERE HE WAS BEFORE” PROVE JESUS LIVED IN HEAVEN BEFORE HIS BIRTH?

READ ARTICLE

JOHN 13:3 & JOHN 16:28 — DID JESUS REALLY SAY HE WAS “RETURNING” OR “GOING BACK” TO GOD?

READ ARTICLE

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“GOD… IN THESE LAST DAYS HAS SPOKEN TO US IN HIS SON.”

HEBREWS 1:1–2

Research by Simon Brown

wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com

Vertical Quick Facts Bible research infographic examining Hebrews 1:1–2 and the contrast between God speaking long ago through the prophets and speaking through His Son in these last days. The image explores whether Jesus was God's spokesman during Old Testament times, the Greek word aiōnas meaning “ages,” Jesus as God's appointed heir, the distinction between the Son and angels, and how Hebrews 1 relates to the question of Jesus Christ’s personal pre-existence. Research by Simon Brown.