Simon Brown.

Join me on this journey. Let's seek the truth together! 💡 Proverbs 8:34-36 Blessed is the man who hears me, watching daily at my gates, waiting at my door posts. For whoever finds me finds life, and will obtain favor from Yahweh. But he who sins against me wrongs his own soul. All those who hate me love death.” Psalm 84: 11 For Yahweh God is a sun and a shield. Yahweh will give grace and glory. He withholds no good thing from those who walk blamelessly. 12 Yahweh of Armies, blessed is the man who trusts in you. 1 John 5:5 Now who is the one overcoming the world, except the one believing that Jesus is the Son of God.

Tuesday, 4 August 2026

Does Acts 7:59 Really Say Stephen Was "Calling Upon God"?

Acts 7:59 Quick Facts infographic comparing the King James Version, modern Bible translations, and the original Greek text to examine whether Stephen was calling upon God.

This Quick Facts study examines Acts 7:59 by comparing the King James Version, modern translations, and the original Greek text. Does the Greek actually contain the words "calling upon God," or were those words supplied by translators? Compare the evidence and decide for yourself.


Acts 7:59 — Quick Facts

Does Acts 7:59 Really Say Stephen Was "Calling Upon God"?

Acts 7:59 is sometimes quoted from the King James Version:

"And they stoned Stephen, calling upon God, and saying, Lord Jesus, receive my spirit."

Many readers naturally assume the words "calling upon God" mean Stephen was directly calling Jesus God.

But is that what the Greek text actually says?

Quick Facts

  • The Greek text of Acts 7:59 does not contain the word "God" (θεός) in this verse.

  • Many modern translations simply read:

    "And as they were stoning Stephen, he called out, 'Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.'"

  • The Greek verb ἐπικαλούμενον (epikaloumenon) means calling out, calling upon, or invoking, but the object "God" is not present in the Greek text.

  • The King James translators supplied the words "calling upon God" as part of their translation. In many editions, supplied words are indicated by italics.

  • The interlinear Greek text shows Stephen calling out and then saying:

    "Lord Jesus, receive my spirit."
    There is no Greek word for "God" in the verse itself.

  • Because of this, Acts 7:59 does not explicitly identify Jesus as God simply by using the phrase "calling upon God."

What Does This Mean?

Acts 7:59 certainly records Stephen addressing the risen Lord Jesus.

However, the verse itself does not contain the word "God" in the Greek text, so it should not be used as proof that Stephen called Jesus God on the basis of that added wording alone.

As always, every doctrine should be tested by comparing translations with the original Greek and by considering the wider teaching of Scripture.

"Test all things; hold fast what is good."1 Thessalonians 5:21


Related links:

Old article here:

The Shroud of Turin Research Library

 

The Shroud of Turin scientific evidence poster showing researcher Simon Brown examining the mysterious burial cloth of Jesus.

The Shroud of Turin is one of the most studied and mysterious objects in history. This poster highlights the scientific, historical, photographic and biblical evidence surrounding the linen cloth that may have covered the crucified body of Jesus Christ. Explore the bloodstains, three-dimensional image, pollen, fibres and other remarkable details in the research presented by Simon Brown.

Monday, 3 August 2026

The Cambrian Explosion — Does It Support Evolution or Creation?


Cambrian Explosion infographic showing trilobites, jellyfish, early marine animals, fossils, and the debate over evolution and biblical Creation.

This infographic illustrates the Cambrian Explosion, a period during which numerous complex animal groups first appear in the fossil record. It presents the scientific discovery alongside the questions it raises concerning evolutionary theory and the biblical account of Creation, encouraging readers to examine the evidence for themselves.

Fossil Jellyfish – More Than 500 Million Years Old, Yet Virtually Unchanged --

Fossil jellyfish more than 500 million years old compared with a modern jellyfish showing remarkable similarity in body structure.

This poster compares exceptionally preserved fossil jellyfish from the Middle Cambrian with living jellyfish today. According to the published geological timescale, these fossils are approximately 505 million years old and preserve extraordinary anatomical detail. The comparison invites readers to examine the fossil evidence and consider what it reveals about the history of life and biological change.


Fossil Jellyfish – More Than 500 Million Years Old, Yet Virtually Unchanged

One of the most remarkable fossil discoveries ever made has raised important questions about one of the central claims of evolutionary theory.

Researchers announced the discovery of exceptionally preserved fossil jellyfish in rocks they dated to more than 500 million years old. According to the research team, these fossils are around 200 million years older than the oldest jellyfish fossils previously known. Even more remarkable is that the fossils preserve such fine detail that scientists were able to relate them to modern groups and families of jellyfish.

If these dating estimates are accepted, then an obvious question follows.

Where is the evidence of major evolutionary change?

The fossil jellyfish look remarkably similar to the jellyfish living in our oceans today. Their essential body plan, structure, and overall design appear to have remained virtually unchanged throughout the entire period assigned to them by evolutionary geology.

The researchers themselves acknowledged that these fossils share characteristics with modern jellyfish and preserve the same basic complexity found in living species.

This presents an interesting challenge.

Evolution is commonly described as a gradual process of change over vast periods of time, with organisms continually adapting and transforming into new forms. Yet here we have creatures that, according to the evolutionary timescale, have existed for more than half a billion years while retaining essentially the same body plan.

If jellyfish have remained fundamentally the same throughout this immense period, why is there so little evidence of the gradual anatomical transformations that evolutionary theory predicts?

The Missing Transition

The discovery also creates another question.

Before these fossils were found, the oldest known jellyfish fossils were thought to be around 300 million years old. With a single discovery, that estimate suddenly increased by approximately 200 million years.

Such a dramatic revision naturally raises questions about how geological ages are determined and how much certainty can reasonably be placed on these estimates.

Furthermore, if jellyfish supposedly existed for hundreds of millions of years before these fossils were discovered, where are the countless intermediate fossils expected from such an enormous span of time?

The fossil record remains surprisingly sparse for soft-bodied creatures such as jellyfish, yet these fossils already display the characteristics of modern jellyfish rather than obvious transitional forms.

An Alternative Explanation

Those who accept the biblical account of Creation see these discoveries very differently.

Genesis records that God created living creatures to reproduce "according to their kinds" (Genesis 1:21, 24-25). From this perspective, jellyfish have always reproduced as jellyfish, preserving their basic created design while allowing for variation within their created kind.

Rather than demonstrating molecules-to-man evolution, these fossils can be understood as evidence of the remarkable stability of the original created kinds.

Whether one accepts the evolutionary timescale or not, the fossil jellyfish remain an extraordinary discovery.

After what is claimed to be more than 500 million years, they still look unmistakably like jellyfish.

Conclusion

The fossilized jellyfish do not settle the debate over origins, but they do present an important question.

If evolution is driven by continual large-scale change over immense periods of time, why do some of the earliest known jellyfish already possess the same basic body plan seen in living jellyfish today?

This remarkable discovery deserves careful consideration by anyone interested in the evidence surrounding the origin and history of life.


Original article here: The discovered Jellyfish that destroys Evolution.

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Sunday, 2 August 2026

Over 100 Questions for Those Who Believe Jesus Is God!

Christian infographic asking over 100 Bible questions about whether Jesus is Almighty God or the Son of God, featuring Scripture references including John 8:24, John 17:3, Philippians 2:12, 1 John 2:22, and Acts 17:11.

This Quick Facts poster presents over 100 Bible questions encouraging readers to examine what Jesus, the Father, and the apostles taught about the identity of Christ. It highlights key passages including John 8:24, John 17:3, Philippians 2:12, 1 John 2:22, and Acts 17:11, inviting every reader to search the Scriptures carefully and test every belief against God's Word. Read the complete study at https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/

John 14:9 — If You Have Seen Me, You Have Seen the Father

Christian infographic explaining John 14:9 with quick facts about Jesus revealing the Father, including John 14:10, Colossians 1:15, Hebrews 1:3, and key biblical references.

Jesus' words in John 14:9 have often been misunderstood. This infographic examines the immediate context and Jesus' own explanation in John 14:10, together with Colossians 1:15, Hebrews 1:3, and Philippians 2:6. Discover why seeing Jesus meant seeing the perfect revelation of the Father, and explore the full Bible study at https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/

John 14:9 — If You Have Seen Me, You Have Seen the Father

Quick Facts

John 14:9 is one of the most quoted verses in discussions about the identity of Jesus.

Jesus said:

"The one having seen Me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'?"
(John 14:9, Berean Literal Bible)

Quick Facts

  • Jesus did not say, "I am the Father."

  • Jesus did not say, "I am God the Father."

  • Jesus was explaining that He perfectly revealed His Father.

  • Jesus is the image of the invisible God (Colossians 1:15).

  • Jesus is the radiance of God's glory and the exact representation of His nature (Hebrews 1:3).

  • Jesus repeatedly taught that the Father was dwelling in Him and working through Him (John 14:10).

  • Seeing Jesus was seeing the perfect revelation of the Father's character, love, truth, and works.

The Key Question

If Jesus said,

"Whoever has seen Me has seen the Father,"

was He claiming to be the Father?

Or was He teaching that He perfectly revealed His Father to the world?

Let's examine the biblical context.


Part 1 – What Did Jesus Mean?

When Philip asked,

"Lord, show us the Father, and it is enough for us." (John 14:8)

Jesus replied,

"Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not known Me, Philip? Whoever has seen Me has seen the Father." (John 14:9)

At first glance, some people conclude that Jesus was saying He is the Father.

But notice something important.

Jesus never says:

"I am the Father."

Nor does He say:

"I am God the Father."

Instead, Jesus answers Philip's request by explaining that His entire life had revealed the Father.

Everything Jesus said...

Everything He did...

Everything He taught...

Perfectly revealed the God who sent Him.


Part 2 – Jesus Immediately Explains His Own Words

The very next verse explains exactly what Jesus meant.

Jesus continues:

"Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in Me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on My own authority, but the Father who dwells in Me does His works." (John 14:10)

Notice carefully.

Jesus does not say,

"I am the Father."

Instead He says,

"The Father dwells in Me."

The Father was living and working through His Son.

This is why Jesus could say that seeing Him was seeing the Father.

Jesus perfectly revealed the Father's character, love, holiness, truth, and power.


Part 3 – Paul's Explanation

The Apostle Paul describes Jesus in exactly the same way.

He writes:

"He is the image of the invisible God." (Colossians 1:15)

Again,

"Christ, who is the image of God." (2 Corinthians 4:4)

And again,

"He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact representation of His nature." (Hebrews 1:3)

Notice the consistent language.

Jesus is:

  • the image,

  • the radiance,

  • the exact representation,

  • the form of God (Philippians 2:6).

These descriptions explain why Jesus said,

"Whoever has seen Me has seen the Father."

Jesus perfectly reveals the invisible God.


Part 4 – The Correct Meaning

Jesus came into the world to reveal His Father.

As the only begotten Son of God, He perfectly reflected His Father's character, glory, wisdom, holiness, love, mercy, and truth.

This is why Jesus could say:

"Whoever has seen Me has seen the Father."

Not because Jesus is the Father,

but because the Father was dwelling in Him, working through Him, and perfectly revealed by Him.

Jesus Himself explained this truth by saying:

"The Father who dwells in Me does His works." (John 14:10)

When we allow Jesus to explain His own words, John 14:9 becomes beautifully clear.

Jesus was not claiming to be the Father.

He was revealing the Father.



Saturday, 1 August 2026

Philippians 2:6 — Does "The Form of God" Mean Jesus Is Almighty God?

Quick Facts infographic examining Philippians 2:6, the meaning of "the form of God," the Greek word morphē, and whether Paul teaches that Jesus is Almighty God.

This Quick Facts infographic explores one of the most debated passages in Paul's letters—Philippians 2:6. Did Paul teach that Jesus is Almighty God, or was he explaining that Jesus perfectly reveals the image, character, and glory of His Father while remaining the obedient Son of God? Examine the Greek word morphē, the immediate context, and Paul's wider teaching to discover what the Scriptures say. Read the full article at https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/

Philippians 2:6 — Does "The Form of God" Mean Jesus Is Almighty God?

A Biblical Examination of Philippians 2:6

By Simon Brown


Part 1 – Quick Facts

One of the most frequently quoted passages used to support the belief that Jesus is Almighty God is Philippians 2:6.

Paul writes:

"Who, being in the form of God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped." (Philippians 2:6)

Many Christians read this verse and immediately conclude that Paul was teaching Jesus is God Himself.

But is that really what Paul meant?

Or is Paul teaching something entirely different?

Before reaching a conclusion, let us carefully examine the biblical evidence.


Quick Facts

  • Paul does not say, "Jesus was God."

  • Instead, Paul says Jesus was "in the form of God."

  • The Greek word translated "form" is μορφή (morphē), which refers to outward form, appearance, nature expressed, or visible manifestation. It does not automatically mean that someone is the very same person as another.

  • Throughout his letters, Paul consistently distinguishes between God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.

  • Paul writes:

"Yet for us there is one God, the Father... and one Lord, Jesus Christ."
(1 Corinthians 8:6)

  • Paul never contradicts this statement anywhere else in his writings.

  • Paul also describes Jesus as:

    • the image of the invisible God (Colossians 1:15),

    • the image of God (2 Corinthians 4:4),

    • the radiance of God's glory (Hebrews 1:3),

    • the exact representation of His nature (Hebrews 1:3).

  • An image is not the same person as the one it represents.

  • A representation is not the original person.

  • Jesus perfectly reveals His Father's character, glory, holiness, and authority because He is God's only begotten Son.

  • Paul goes on to explain that Jesus humbled Himself, became obedient to death, and therefore God highly exalted Him (Philippians 2:8–9). The One who exalts Jesus is clearly distinguished from Jesus Himself.


The Question We Must Answer

When Paul wrote that Jesus was:

"In the form of God,"

was he teaching that Jesus is Almighty God?

Or was he teaching that Jesus perfectly reflected the image, character, glory, and nature of His Father while remaining the Son whom God sent into the world?

This is the question we shall examine.

Rather than relying upon tradition, we will carefully study:

  • the Greek word μορφή (morphē),

  • the immediate context of Philippians 2,

  • Paul's teaching elsewhere,

  • and the testimony of the whole Bible.

Like the Bereans, we should always examine the Scriptures carefully to see whether these things are so (Acts 17:11).


Part 1 – What Does Paul Actually Say?

Philippians 2:6 is one of the most frequently quoted passages used to support the belief that Jesus is Almighty God.

Paul writes:

"Who, being in the form of God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped."
(Philippians 2:6)

Many Christians immediately conclude that Paul is teaching Jesus is Almighty God Himself.

But before reaching that conclusion, we should ask a very simple question.

Is that actually what Paul wrote?

The answer is no.

Notice carefully what Paul did say.

He wrote that Jesus was:

"In the form of God."

Now notice what Paul did not say.

Paul does not write:

  • Jesus was God.

  • Jesus is Almighty God.

  • Jesus is the Father.

  • Jesus shares the same identity as the one God, the Father.

Instead, Paul deliberately chose the words:

"In the form of God."

Those words immediately raise an important question.

Why did Paul choose the expression "the form of God" instead of simply saying "Jesus was God"?

The answer is found by allowing Paul to explain his own words.

One of the safest principles of Bible study is:

Scripture explains Scripture.

Rather than beginning with later theological traditions, we should first examine how Paul describes Jesus throughout his own letters.

Remarkably, Paul repeatedly uses very similar language.

He writes that Jesus is:

  • the image of the invisible God (Colossians 1:15),

  • the image of God (2 Corinthians 4:4),

  • the radiance of God's glory (Hebrews 1:3),

  • the exact representation of God's nature (Hebrews 1:3).

Notice the consistent pattern.

Paul does not describe Jesus as the Father.

Instead, he presents Jesus as the perfect image and exact representation of His Father's character, glory, and nature.

Just as an image reflects the one it represents, Jesus perfectly reveals the invisible God to mankind.

A perfect representation is not the same person as the one being represented.

This agrees perfectly with Jesus' own teaching.

Jesus said:

"Whoever has seen Me has seen the Father."
(John 14:9)

But He immediately explained why:

"The words that I say to you I do not speak on My own authority, but the Father who dwells in Me does His works."
(John 14:10)

Jesus was not saying He was the Father.

He was explaining that the Father was living and working through Him.

Paul's description in Philippians 2:6 fits perfectly with this same truth.

The Son perfectly reveals His Father because He is the Father's unique and only begotten Son.

The next question therefore becomes:

What did Paul mean by the Greek word translated "form"?

That single word is the key to understanding Philippians 2:6.


Part 2 – What Does "The Form of God" Mean?

The key to understanding Philippians 2:6 is the expression:

"Who, being in the form of God..."
(Philippians 2:6)

What did Paul mean by "the form of God"?

The Greek word translated "form" is μορφή (morphē).

According to Strong's Concordance, morphē means:

"Form, shape, outward appearance."

It describes the visible expression of what someone is.

Notice again what Paul wrote.

He did not simply say:

"Who, being God..."

Instead, he carefully chose the words:

"Who, being in the form of God..."

Those additional words are significant.

If Paul's intention had been to teach that Jesus is Almighty God Himself, he could simply have written:

"Who, being God..."

But he did not.

Instead, Paul describes Jesus as being in the form of God.

The question therefore becomes:

Why did Paul choose this expression?

The answer becomes clear when we compare Philippians 2:6 with Paul's other writings.

Paul repeatedly describes Jesus using similar language.

He writes:

"He is the image of the invisible God."
(Colossians 1:15)

Again:

"Christ, who is the image of God."
(2 Corinthians 4:4)

And again:

"He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact representation of His nature."
(Hebrews 1:3)

Notice the remarkable consistency.

Paul speaks of:

  • form,

  • image,

  • radiance,

  • exact representation.

Each expression points to the same truth.

Jesus perfectly reveals His Father.

A person who is the image of another is not the same person as the one being imaged.

Likewise, an exact representation is not the same person as the one being represented.

Instead, it faithfully reveals the character and nature of the original.

This is exactly how Jesus described Himself.

He said:

"Whoever has seen Me has seen the Father."
(John 14:9)

But He immediately explained why:

"The words that I say to you I do not speak on My own authority, but the Father who dwells in Me does His works."
(John 14:10)

Jesus was not claiming to be His Father.

He was explaining that the Father was living and working through Him.

The same principle helps us understand Paul's words.

Jesus is in the form of God because He perfectly reflects His Father's character, glory, wisdom, holiness, and love.

As God's only begotten Son, He uniquely reveals the invisible God to mankind.

This understanding also fits perfectly with the rest of Paul's writings, where he consistently distinguishes between:

  • the one God, the Father, and

  • the one Lord, Jesus Christ (1 Corinthians 8:6).

The next statement in Philippians 2:6 is just as important.

Paul says Jesus:

"Did not consider equality with God something to be grasped."

What did Paul mean by that?

Was he saying Jesus was equal with God?

Or was he saying exactly the opposite?

That is the next question we must examine.  

"...did not consider equality with God something to be grasped."

Let's carefully examine what Paul actually wrote.


Part 3 – Did Paul Teach That Jesus Was Equal with God?

After describing Jesus as being "in the form of God," Paul continues:

"...did not consider equality with God something to be grasped."
(Philippians 2:6)

This statement has often been interpreted to mean that Jesus already was Almighty God.

But is that really what Paul is saying?

Once again, we should begin by asking:

What does the text actually say?

Notice that Paul does not write:

"Jesus was equal with God."

Instead, Paul says Jesus did not consider equality with God something to be grasped.

The emphasis is not on Jesus declaring Himself equal with God.

The emphasis is on His attitude.

Rather than seeking His own glory or exalting Himself, Jesus chose the path of humility and obedience.

This becomes clear as we continue reading.

Paul writes:

"But emptied Himself, taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death—even death on a cross."
(Philippians 2:7–8)

Notice the flow of Paul's argument.

He is not explaining who Jesus is in an abstract theological sense.

He is presenting Jesus as the supreme example of humility.

This is the whole purpose of the passage.

In fact, Paul begins the chapter by encouraging believers:

"Do nothing from selfish ambition or conceit, but in humility count others more significant than yourselves."
(Philippians 2:3)

Then he says:

"Have this mind among yourselves, which was also in Christ Jesus."
(Philippians 2:5)

Everything that follows is illustrating Christ's humility.

Jesus did not seek His own honour.

He did not exalt Himself.

He willingly humbled Himself and became obedient to His Father's will.

This perfectly agrees with Jesus' own words throughout John's Gospel.

Jesus repeatedly said:

"I seek not My own glory."
(John 8:50)

Again:

"I can do nothing on My own."
(John 5:30)

And again:

"The Father is greater than I."
(John 14:28)

Throughout His earthly ministry, Jesus consistently pointed away from Himself and gave all glory to His Father.

Paul is describing that same humble attitude in Philippians 2.

Rather than grasping for position, honour, or status, Jesus submitted Himself completely to the will of God.

This is why the next verse begins with one of the most important words in the chapter:

"Therefore..."
(Philippians 2:9)

Because Jesus humbled Himself and remained obedient, therefore God highly exalted Him.

Notice carefully.

Jesus does not exalt Himself.

God exalts Jesus.

The One who exalts is greater than the one who is exalted.

Paul writes:

"Therefore God highly exalted Him and bestowed on Him the name that is above every name."
(Philippians 2:9)

This is a vital point.

If Jesus already possessed the highest position as Almighty God Himself, why would God need to highly exalt Him?

Why would God need to bestow honour upon Him?

The answer is found in Jesus' perfect obedience.

The Father rewarded His faithful Son by exalting Him above every other human being and giving Him the highest place under Himself.

Far from teaching that Jesus is Almighty God, Paul presents a beautiful picture of the Father's love for His obedient Son.

The next section will examine this exaltation in greater detail and show how it fits perfectly with Paul's consistent teaching that there is:

"One God, the Father... and one Lord, Jesus Christ."
(1 Corinthians 8:6)


Part 4 – Why Did God Highly Exalt Jesus?

After describing Christ's humility and obedience, Paul reaches the climax of his argument.

He writes:

"Therefore God highly exalted Him and bestowed on Him the name that is above every name."
(Philippians 2:9)

The very first word is significant:

"Therefore..."

Paul is explaining why Jesus was exalted.

Because Jesus willingly humbled Himself...

Because He became obedient to His Father's will...

Because He endured death, even death on a cross...

Therefore God highly exalted Him.

Notice carefully who is acting.

Paul does not say that Jesus exalted Himself.

Nor does he say that Jesus simply returned to a position He already possessed.

Instead, Paul says:

God highly exalted Him.

This is one of the clearest distinctions between the Father and the Son in the New Testament.

There is:

  • the One who exalts, and

  • the One who is exalted.

Paul consistently identifies the Father as the One who acts.

The Father exalts.

The Son is exalted.

The Father gives.

The Son receives.

Paul continues:

"...and bestowed on Him the name that is above every name."
(Philippians 2:9)

Again, notice the wording.

The name was given to Jesus.

It was not something Jesus bestowed upon Himself.

Throughout the New Testament, Jesus repeatedly acknowledges that everything He has comes from His Father.

Jesus Himself said:

"All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to Me."
(Matthew 28:18)

Likewise, Jesus declared:

"The Father loves the Son and has given all things into His hand."
(John 3:35)

Again:

"All that the Father gives Me will come to Me."
(John 6:37)

And after His resurrection Jesus still referred to the Father as:

"My God and your God."
(John 20:17)

All of these passages present the same consistent picture.

The Father is the source.

The Son is the faithful recipient.

The Son receives His authority, glory, honour, and exaltation from His Father.

This also agrees perfectly with Peter's preaching.

Peter declared:

"The God of our fathers glorified His servant Jesus."
(Acts 3:13)

Notice once again.

It is God who glorifies Jesus.

Paul's words in Philippians 2 therefore fit beautifully with the rest of the New Testament.

Rather than presenting Jesus as exalting Himself, Paul shows the Father rewarding His obedient Son.

This is precisely why the chapter is such a powerful lesson in humility.

Jesus did not seek His own glory.

He trusted His Father completely.

And in due time, the Father highly exalted Him.

The next question naturally follows.

Does Paul teach this same distinction between God the Father and Jesus Christ elsewhere in his letters?

The answer is yes—and the consistency of Paul's teaching is remarkable.


Part 6 – Conclusion

When Philippians 2:6 is read in its immediate context and alongside the rest of Paul's writings, a clear and consistent picture emerges.

Paul does not simply say that Jesus was God.

Instead, he describes Jesus as being:

"In the form of God."

Throughout his letters, Paul consistently explains what this means.

Jesus is:

  • the image of the invisible God (Colossians 1:15),

  • the image of God (2 Corinthians 4:4),

  • the radiance of God's glory (Hebrews 1:3),

  • the exact representation of God's nature (Hebrews 1:3).

These descriptions reveal that Jesus perfectly reflects His Father's character, glory, holiness, wisdom, and love.

As the only begotten Son of God, He is the perfect revelation of the invisible God to mankind.

Paul then goes on to show Christ's extraordinary humility.

Rather than seeking His own glory, Jesus willingly humbled Himself, became obedient to His Father's will, and even accepted death on a cross.

Because of His perfect obedience,

"Therefore God highly exalted Him and bestowed on Him the name that is above every name."
(Philippians 2:9)

Notice the beautiful relationship that Paul describes.

The Father exalts.

The Son is exalted.

The Father gives.

The Son receives.

The Father sends.

The Son willingly obeys.

This same pattern appears throughout the New Testament.

Jesus continually gave all honour and glory to His Father.

He said:

"The Father is greater than I." (John 14:28)

He also prayed:

"This is eternal life, that they know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent." (John 17:3)

Paul's teaching harmonises perfectly with these words.

He never abandons the distinction between the one God, the Father, and the one Lord, Jesus Christ.

Instead, Philippians 2 presents Jesus as the perfect example of humility, obedience, and faithful service.

Far from grasping at honour for Himself, He humbled Himself completely and entrusted His life to His Father.

For that reason, God highly exalted Him and gave Him the highest place under Himself.

When we allow Paul to explain Paul, Philippians 2:6 fits beautifully with the whole testimony of Scripture.

The passage is not merely about Christ's identity.

It is a powerful call for every believer to imitate His humility, obedience, and complete trust in God.

As Paul himself says at the beginning of this chapter:

"Have this mind among yourselves, which was also in Christ Jesus." (Philippians 2:5)

That is the central lesson of Philippians 2.

May we follow the example of our Lord Jesus Christ by humbling ourselves, serving others, and giving all glory to the one true God, the Father.

And like the Bereans, may we continue to examine the Scriptures carefully, allowing God's Word to interpret itself rather than relying upon human tradition (Acts 17:11).

John 17:5 — Did Jesus Exist with the Father Before the World Began?

 

Quick Facts infographic examining John 17:5 and whether Jesus existed with the Father before the world began, comparing God's foreknowledge, prophecy, and the wider testimony of Scripture.

This Quick Facts infographic examines one of the most discussed verses in John's Gospel—John 17:5. Did Jesus teach that He consciously existed with the Father before the world began, or was He referring to the glory, purpose, and plan God had prepared for His Messiah before creation? This study compares John 17:5 with John 17:3, John 17:22, John 17:24, 1 Peter 1:20, Acts 2:23, and other key passages to encourage readers to examine the whole testimony of Scripture. Read the full research at https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/


John 17:5 — Did Jesus Exist with the Father Before the World Began?

A Biblical Examination of Jesus' Prayer About the Glory He Had with the Father Before the World Existed

By Simon Brown


Part 1 – Quick Facts

One of the most frequently quoted verses used to support the belief that Jesus consciously existed with the Father before His human birth is John 17:5.

Jesus prayed:

"And now, Father, glorify Me in Your own presence with the glory that I had with You before the world existed."
(John 17:5)

Many Christians read this verse and immediately conclude that Jesus was saying He personally lived beside the Father before the creation of the world.

But is that really what Jesus meant?

Or could He have been referring to something else?

Before reaching any conclusion, let us carefully examine the biblical evidence.

Quick Facts

  • Jesus does not say, "Glorify Me with the glory I had when I was already living beside You before the world existed."

  • Throughout the Bible, God speaks of people, events, and purposes long before they become reality because they already exist in His foreknowledge and eternal plan.

  • The Apostle Peter describes Jesus as being foreknown before the foundation of the world, yet made manifest only in these last times for our sake (1 Peter 1:20).

  • Peter also teaches that Jesus was delivered according to God's definite plan and foreknowledge (Acts 2:23), demonstrating that God's purposes existed before their fulfilment in history.

  • Later in the very same prayer, Jesus asks the Father to give His disciples the same glory that the Father had given Him (John 17:22). Yet no one suggests that the disciples personally existed before the creation of the world.

  • Jesus also says that the Father loved Him before the foundation of the world (John 17:24), showing that God's love and purpose extend beyond human history.

  • Only two verses earlier, Jesus clearly distinguishes Himself from His Father by praying:

"This is eternal life: that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent."
(John 17:3)

  • Even after His resurrection, Jesus still calls the Father:

"My God and your God."
(John 20:17)

  • Throughout the New Testament, Jesus is presented as the promised Messiah, foretold by the prophets, foreknown in God's eternal purpose, miraculously conceived by the Holy Spirit, and sent into the world by His Father.

The Question We Must Answer

When Jesus prayed,

"Father, glorify Me in Your own presence with the glory that I had with You before the world existed,"

was He teaching that He consciously lived beside the Father before creation?

Or was He referring to the glory, honour, and purpose that God had prepared for His Messiah long before the world began?

In this study we will carefully examine:

  • the immediate context of John 17,

  • God's foreknowledge and eternal purpose,

  • the meaning of glory in Scripture,

  • the testimony of Peter and Paul,

  • and Jesus' own teaching concerning His Father,

allowing the whole Bible—not tradition—to explain one of the most discussed verses in John's Gospel.


Part 2 – Why John 17:5 Has Confused Millions

John 17:5 has become one of the most frequently quoted passages used to support the belief that Jesus consciously existed with the Father before the creation of the world.

Jesus prayed:

"And now, Father, glorify Me in Your own presence with the glory that I had with You before the world existed."
(John 17:5)

Many readers immediately conclude that Jesus was saying He literally lived beside the Father before the world was created.

For this reason, John 17:5 is often presented as one of the strongest proofs of Christ's personal pre-existence.

Many Bible commentaries also interpret the verse this way.

For example, Robertson's Word Pictures of the New Testament states that Jesus was asking for the restoration of His "actual and conscious existence at the Father's side" before the incarnation.

This interpretation has influenced many Christians to believe that John 17:5 is describing a literal, personal existence with God before creation.

But should we simply accept this conclusion?

Or should we do what the Bereans did and carefully examine the Scriptures to see whether these things are so?

The important question is not:

"What do traditions or commentaries say?"

The important question is:

"What does the whole Bible say?"

Before building an entire doctrine upon one verse, we should ask several important questions.

  • Did Jesus actually say He consciously lived beside the Father before the world existed?

  • Or did He simply speak of the glory that He had with the Father before the world existed?

  • Is there a difference between God foreknowing and planning something before creation and someone consciously existing before creation?

  • Does the rest of Scripture help explain Jesus' words?

These questions are important because the Bible frequently speaks of God's plans, purposes, promises, and even His chosen people before they appear in history.

God declared through Isaiah:

"I am God, and there is no other... declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times things not yet done."
(Isaiah 46:9–10)

This remarkable ability belongs to God alone.

He knows the future before it happens.

He declares His purposes long before they are fulfilled.

Therefore, before concluding that John 17:5 teaches Christ's conscious pre-existence, we must first examine how the Bible describes God's foreknowledge and eternal purpose.

Could Jesus have been referring to the glory that His Father had already prepared for Him in God's eternal plan?

Or was He speaking of a literal life with the Father before the creation of the world?

The Scriptures themselves will provide the answer.

In the next section, we will carefully examine the exact words Jesus prayed and discover something many readers overlook when reading John 17:5.



Part 3 – What Did Jesus Actually Say?

One of the most important principles of Bible study is to read Scripture carefully without adding words or ideas that are not actually there.

Let us therefore look again at Jesus' prayer.

Jesus said:

"And now, Father, glorify Me in Your own presence with the glory that I had with You before the world existed."
(John 17:5)

Notice carefully what Jesus did say.

He prayed for the Father to glorify Him with the glory that He had with the Father before the world existed.

Now notice what Jesus did not say.

He did not say:

  • "Father, restore Me to the life I lived with You before the world existed."

  • "Father, return Me to heaven where I consciously lived before creation."

  • "Father, give Me back the body I had before I came to earth."

  • "Father, restore My previous heavenly existence."

None of those statements appear in John 17:5.

Instead, Jesus speaks only about the glory He had with the Father before the world existed.

That distinction is extremely important.

The question therefore becomes:

What does Jesus mean by "the glory" that He had with the Father?

Does glory always refer to a conscious personal existence?

Or can glory exist in God's eternal purpose long before it is revealed in history?

The Bible repeatedly shows that God plans and prepares things long before they come to pass.

Peter writes concerning Jesus:

"He was foreknown before the foundation of the world but was made manifest in these last times for your sake."
(1 Peter 1:20)

Notice the remarkable wording.

Peter does not say that Jesus was manifest before the foundation of the world.

He says Jesus was foreknown before the foundation of the world.

There is a significant difference.

Something that is foreknown exists in God's perfect knowledge, purpose, and plan before it appears in history.

Peter uses exactly the same principle in Acts.

Speaking about Jesus' death, he writes:

"This Jesus, delivered up according to the definite plan and foreknowledge of God, you crucified and killed by the hands of lawless men."
(Acts 2:23)

Again, Jesus' sacrifice was part of God's eternal purpose long before it actually happened.

God knew it.

God planned it.

God appointed it.

Only later was it fulfilled.

Could Jesus therefore be praying to receive the glory that had always been prepared for Him in the Father's eternal purpose?

This would perfectly agree with the way God speaks throughout Scripture.

God often speaks of future events as though they already exist because, in His perfect knowledge, they are absolutely certain.

As Isaiah records:

"I am God, and there is no other... declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times things not yet done."
(Isaiah 46:9–10)

Only God can speak this way.

He knows the future perfectly.

He declares His purposes before they happen.

He prepares His salvation long before it is revealed.

This leads us to another remarkable observation.

Only a few verses later, Jesus prays that His disciples would receive the very glory that the Father had given Him.

Could this help explain what Jesus meant in John 17:5?

Let us examine the next verses carefully.


Part 4 – Jesus Gives the Same Glory to His Disciples

One of the most overlooked facts when studying John 17:5 is that only a few verses later, Jesus speaks again about glory.

This time, however, He is not speaking about Himself.

He is praying for His disciples.

Jesus says:

"The glory that You have given Me I have given to them, that they may be one even as We are one."
(John 17:22)

Notice what Jesus says.

The Father gave glory to Jesus.

Jesus then gave that same glory to His disciples.

This immediately raises an important question.

Did the disciples exist with God before the foundation of the world?

The obvious answer is no.

The disciples were ordinary men, born on earth many centuries after the creation of the world.

Yet Jesus says He has given them the glory that the Father gave Him.

This demonstrates an important biblical principle.

Receiving glory does not require someone to have personally existed before creation.

Throughout the Scriptures, glory often refers to honour, authority, privilege, purpose, and the position God appoints for His servants.

Jesus prayed that His followers would share in His glory because they would share in His work, His mission, and ultimately His future inheritance.

Notice also what Jesus prayed only moments later:

"Father, I desire that they also, whom You have given Me, may be with Me where I am, to see My glory that You have given Me because You loved Me before the foundation of the world."
(John 17:24)

Again, Jesus speaks of the Father's love before the foundation of the world.

Does this mean the disciples were also alive before the foundation of the world because they were included in God's plan?

Certainly not.

Instead, it reveals something wonderful about God's eternal purpose.

Long before the world was created, God had already purposed to send His Son into the world.

He had already planned salvation.

He had already determined that faithful believers would one day share in Christ's glory.

This is exactly what Paul teaches.

Writing to Timothy, he says:

"...according to His own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the ages began."
(2 Timothy 1:9)

Notice Paul's words carefully.

God's grace was given to us before the ages began.

Does that mean Christians consciously existed before creation?

Of course not.

Paul is speaking about God's eternal purpose.

In the same way, Peter writes:

"He chose us in Christ before the foundation of the world..."
(Ephesians 1:4)

Were believers personally alive before creation?

No.

God simply chose them beforehand in His perfect foreknowledge and eternal plan.

This is exactly how God works throughout Scripture.

He speaks of things that are certain in His purpose long before they are fulfilled in history.

Therefore, when Jesus prayed,

"Glorify Me with the glory that I had with You before the world existed,"

it is entirely consistent with the rest of Scripture to understand this as referring to the glory prepared for God's Messiah in His eternal purpose, rather than requiring a conscious personal existence beside the Father before creation.

This understanding also harmonises perfectly with Jesus' own words only two verses earlier:

"This is eternal life, that they know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent."
(John 17:3)

The Father remains the only true God.

Jesus remains the Christ whom the Father sent.

The next question is equally important.

What does the Bible teach about God's foreknowledge before the foundation of the world?

Because once we understand God's foreknowledge, John 17:5 becomes much easier to understand.


Part 5 – God's Foreknowledge Before the Foundation of the World

One of the greatest mistakes people make when reading John 17:5 is failing to understand how God speaks about the future.

Throughout the Bible, God frequently speaks of people, events, promises, and purposes long before they actually happen.

Why?

Because God knows the end from the beginning.

He declares:

"I am God, and there is no other; I am God, and there is none like Me, declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times things not yet done."
(Isaiah 46:9–10)

This is one of God's unique attributes.

Unlike mankind, God sees history before it unfolds.

Nothing surprises Him.

Nothing catches Him unaware.

Everything takes place according to His perfect knowledge and eternal purpose.

This principle is seen throughout the New Testament.

Peter writes concerning Jesus:

"He was foreknown before the foundation of the world but was made manifest in these last times for your sake."
(1 Peter 1:20)

Notice Peter's wording carefully.

He does not say Jesus was manifest before the foundation of the world.

Nor does he say Jesus was born, living, or walking beside the Father before creation.

Instead, Peter says Jesus was foreknown.

There is a profound difference.

To be foreknown means to be fully known beforehand within God's eternal purpose and plan.

Peter repeats this same truth in Acts.

Speaking of Jesus' death, he writes:

"This Jesus, delivered up according to the definite plan and foreknowledge of God, you crucified and killed by the hands of lawless men."
(Acts 2:23)

Notice once again.

Jesus' death did not happen by accident.

It happened exactly according to God's predetermined purpose.

God knew it.

God planned it.

God foretold it through the prophets.

Only later was it fulfilled in history.

This is precisely how biblical prophecy works.

Centuries before Jesus was born, the prophets had already spoken about:

  • His birth.

  • His ministry.

  • His miracles.

  • His rejection.

  • His suffering.

  • His crucifixion.

  • His resurrection.

  • His kingdom.

Did Jesus therefore have to be consciously alive when Isaiah, Micah, David, and Zechariah wrote these prophecies?

Of course not.

The prophecies existed because they were part of God's eternal purpose.

Their fulfilment came later.

The same principle appears throughout Scripture.

Paul writes:

"...according to His own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the ages began."
(2 Timothy 1:9)

Does this mean Christians consciously existed before creation?

Certainly not.

Paul is describing God's eternal purpose.

Likewise, he tells believers:

"He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world."
(Ephesians 1:4)

Again, believers were not personally alive before creation.

Yet God already knew them.

He had already purposed their salvation.

He had already prepared their inheritance.

The Bible repeatedly teaches this wonderful truth.

God's plans exist before their fulfilment.

God's promises exist before their fulfilment.

God's chosen Messiah was foreknown before His fulfilment.

Therefore, when Jesus prayed:

"Father, glorify Me with the glory that I had with You before the world existed."
(John 17:5)

It is entirely consistent with the rest of Scripture to understand Him as speaking of the glory that already existed within God's eternal purpose for His Messiah.

This understanding also harmonises beautifully with Jesus' own teaching.

Only two verses earlier He prayed:

"This is eternal life, that they know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent."
(John 17:3)

The Father is the only true God.

Jesus is the Christ whom the Father sent.

The same Jesus who was foreknown before the foundation of the world was later revealed at exactly the right time, just as Peter declares.

This leads us to another important question.

If Jesus was asking to receive the glory prepared for Him before the foundation of the world, when did He actually receive that glory?

The New Testament gives a remarkably clear answer.

Let us now examine what happened after Jesus' resurrection and ascension.


Part 6 – When Did Jesus Receive His Glory?

If Jesus was asking the Father to glorify Him, then we should ask another important question.

When did the Father answer that prayer?

The New Testament repeatedly tells us that Jesus received His glory after His death, resurrection, and ascension.

Peter writes:

"The God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, the God of our fathers, has glorified His servant Jesus."
(Acts 3:13)

Notice carefully.

Who glorified Jesus?

It was God.

Jesus did not glorify Himself.

His Father glorified Him.

This agrees perfectly with Jesus' prayer in John 17:5.

Again, Peter writes:

"...through Him are believers in God, who raised Him from the dead and gave Him glory..."
(1 Peter 1:21)

Notice once more.

God raised Jesus.

God gave Jesus glory.

The glory was something given to Jesus by His Father.

This agrees exactly with what Jesus prayed before His crucifixion.

Paul teaches the same truth.

Speaking of Jesus, he writes:

"Therefore God has highly exalted Him and bestowed on Him the name that is above every name."
(Philippians 2:9)

Notice Paul's words.

Therefore...

Because of Jesus' perfect obedience—even unto death—the Father highly exalted Him.

If Jesus already possessed absolute glory as Almighty God Himself, why would God need to exalt Him?

Why would God need to give Him a name above every name?

The obvious answer is that the Father rewarded His faithful Son.

This is exactly what Jesus prayed for in John 17:5.

The writer of Hebrews also confirms this.

He tells us:

"After making purification for sins, He sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high."
(Hebrews 1:3)

Again:

"For the joy that was set before Him endured the cross... and has sat down at the right hand of the throne of God."
(Hebrews 12:2)

Notice the order.

Jesus first humbled Himself.

Jesus faithfully completed the work His Father had given Him.

Only then was He exalted.

Only then was He glorified.

Only then did He sit at the Father's right hand.

This is precisely what Jesus anticipated in John 17:5.

He knew His earthly work was almost complete.

He therefore prayed that His Father would now glorify Him with the glory prepared for Him from the very beginning of God's eternal purpose.

This understanding beautifully harmonises with everything we have already examined.

  • Jesus was foreknown before the foundation of the world.

  • God's purpose existed before creation.

  • The Messiah's glory was prepared beforehand.

  • Jesus faithfully completed His Father's will.

  • The Father then glorified His obedient Son.

There is no contradiction.

Instead, there is one consistent story running throughout the whole Bible.

God planned His Messiah before the foundation of the world.

God sent His Messiah at the appointed time.

God raised His Messiah from the dead.

God glorified His Messiah.

God exalted His Messiah above every name.

All glory ultimately belongs to the Father, who accomplished His eternal purpose through His beloved Son.

This also helps us understand why Jesus always gave the glory back to His Father.

Even after His resurrection, Jesus never claimed that He Himself was the only true God.

Instead, He continued to distinguish Himself from His Father by saying:

"I am ascending to My Father and your Father, to My God and your God."
(John 20:17)

The Father remained His God.

The Son remained the Father's glorified Messiah.

The next question is perhaps the most important of all.

How does John 17:3 help us understand John 17:5?

Remarkably, the answer is found only two verses earlier, in the very same prayer.


Part 7 – John 17:3 Explains John 17:5

One of the greatest mistakes made when interpreting John 17:5 is reading it in isolation.

Instead of beginning at verse 5, we should begin where Jesus began.

Only two verses earlier, Jesus prayed:

"And this is eternal life, that they know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent."
(John 17:3)

These words are among the clearest and most important statements Jesus ever made.

Notice how Jesus clearly distinguishes between two persons.

First:

"You, the only true God."

Jesus is speaking directly to His Father.

He identifies His Father as:

"the only true God."

Then Jesus immediately adds:

"and Jesus Christ whom You have sent."

Notice the distinction.

The Father is identified as:

  • the only true God.

Jesus identifies Himself as:

  • Jesus Christ, the One whom the Father sent.

Jesus does not pray:

"That they know Us, the only true God."

Nor does He say:

"That they know Me as the only true God."

Instead, Jesus carefully distinguishes Himself from the only true God by identifying Himself as the Christ whom the Father sent.

This is the foundation of the entire prayer.

Now continue reading into verse 5.

Jesus says:

"And now, Father, glorify Me in Your own presence with the glory that I had with You before the world existed."
(John 17:5)

Notice what has happened.

The speaker has not changed.

The Father has not changed.

Jesus has not changed.

The One whom Jesus has just identified as the only true God is still the same Father to whom He is praying.

Therefore, whatever John 17:5 means, it cannot contradict what Jesus has just declared in John 17:3.

Scripture always agrees with itself.

Jesus cannot identify His Father as the only true God in verse 3 and then two verses later declare Himself to be that same only true God.

Instead, the two verses beautifully complement one another.

In verse 3:

The Father is:

the only true God.

Jesus is:

the Christ whom the Father sent.

In verse 5:

The Son prays to the only true God and asks His Father to glorify Him with the glory prepared for Him before the world existed.

The relationship remains exactly the same.

The Father is the Giver.

The Son is the Receiver.

The Father sends.

The Son is sent.

The Father glorifies.

The Son is glorified.

The Father commands.

The Son obeys.

This same pattern appears throughout John's Gospel.

Jesus repeatedly says:

"The Father is greater than I."
(John 14:28)

He also says:

"The Son can do nothing of Himself, unless it is something He sees the Father doing."
(John 5:19)

Again:

"I do nothing on My own initiative, but I speak these things as the Father taught Me."
(John 8:28)

And once more:

"The words that I say to you I do not speak on My own authority, but the Father who dwells in Me does His works."
(John 14:10)

Every one of these passages points in the same direction.

Jesus continually gives all honour, authority, power, and glory back to His Father.

He never replaces the Father.

He never claims to be the only true God.

Instead, He continually glorifies the One whom He Himself calls:

"the only true God."

This is why John 17:3 must always be read before John 17:5.

When both verses are read together, the prayer becomes wonderfully clear.

Jesus, the promised Messiah and Son of God, is praying to His Father—the only true God—and asking to receive the glory that His Father had prepared for Him before the foundation of the world.

The next question naturally follows.

How did the early apostles understand these words after Jesus' resurrection?

Did Peter, Paul, and John begin teaching that Jesus was the only true God?

Or did they continue teaching exactly what Jesus Himself had prayed?

That is the final piece of the puzzle.


Part 8 – How Did the Apostles Understand Jesus' Prayer?

After Jesus returned to His Father, did the apostles begin teaching that Jesus was the only true God?

Or did they continue teaching exactly what Jesus Himself had prayed in John 17?

The answer is remarkably clear.

Throughout the New Testament, the apostles consistently distinguish between God the Father and His Son, Jesus Christ.

Consider Paul's words:

"Yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist."
(1 Corinthians 8:6)

Notice how closely Paul's words resemble Jesus' own prayer.

Jesus said:

"You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent."
(John 17:3)

Paul writes:

"One God, the Father... and one Lord, Jesus Christ."

The same distinction remains.

The Father is identified as the one God.

Jesus is identified as the one Lord.

Paul never says:

"One God: Father, Son, and Holy Spirit."

Instead, he repeats the same truth Jesus taught.

Peter teaches exactly the same.

He begins his second letter by writing:

"May grace and peace be multiplied to you in the knowledge of God and of Jesus our Lord."
(2 Peter 1:2)

Again, notice the distinction.

There is God.

There is Jesus our Lord.

The two are closely united, yet clearly distinguished.

The Apostle John also ends his Gospel by reminding readers of the purpose for which he wrote.

Immediately after recording Jesus' prayer in John 17 and Thomas' words in John 20:28, John concludes:

"These are written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in His name."
(John 20:31)

Notice John's conclusion.

After everything he has recorded, he does not say:

"These things are written so that you may believe Jesus is Almighty God."

Instead, he writes:

"Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God."

This is exactly what Jesus Himself taught throughout John's Gospel.

The apostles faithfully preserved the same message.

Even after Jesus had been raised from the dead and glorified by His Father, they continued to distinguish between:

  • God the Father, and

  • His Son, Jesus Christ.

This is also confirmed by the risen Jesus Himself.

After His resurrection He told Mary:

"I am ascending to My Father and your Father, to My God and your God."
(John 20:17)

Notice how remarkable this statement is.

After His resurrection...

After His victory over death...

After He had received all authority...

Jesus still calls the Father:

"My God."

This agrees perfectly with John 17:3.

The Father remains the only true God.

Jesus remains the Father's beloved Son and glorified Messiah.

The testimony of the New Testament is therefore wonderfully consistent.

Jesus prays to the Father.

The apostles preach the Father.

The apostles preach Jesus as the Christ, the Son of God.

The Father glorifies the Son.

The Son glorifies the Father.

Every writer tells the same story.


Final Conclusion

When John 17:5 is read alongside the whole Bible, there is no need to force the verse to teach something Jesus never actually said.

Instead, the Scriptures reveal a beautiful and consistent picture.

God had already planned His Messiah before the foundation of the world.

God foreknew His Son.

God prepared glory for His Son.

At the appointed time, God brought His Son into the world through the miraculous conception of Mary.

Jesus faithfully completed the work His Father gave Him to do.

After His death and resurrection, the Father glorified and exalted His obedient Son, exactly as Jesus had prayed.

Throughout this entire prayer, Jesus never changes His relationship with His Father.

He continues to pray to the One whom He had already identified as:

"The only true God."
(John 17:3)

And He continues to identify Himself as:

"Jesus Christ whom You have sent."

The safest way to understand John 17:5 is therefore to read it in harmony with the whole testimony of Scripture.

When we do so, we discover that God's eternal foreknowledge, purpose, promises, and glory were established before the foundation of the world, and that Jesus Christ is the promised Messiah through whom God has fulfilled His perfect plan of salvation.

As Paul reminds us:

"For from Him and through Him and to Him are all things. To Him be the glory forever. Amen." (Romans 11:36)

May we all continue to follow the example of the Bereans:

"They received the word with great eagerness, examining the Scriptures daily to see if these things were so." (Acts 17:11)

For the Scriptures—not human tradition—must always remain our final authority.

John 6:38 — How Did Jesus Come Down From Heaven?

 Quick Facts infographic examining John 6:38 and Jesus' statement, "I have come down from heaven," comparing the biblical context, the Second Adam, and key Scriptures.

This Quick Facts infographic examines one of Jesus' most discussed statements in John 6:38: "I have come down from heaven." By comparing this verse with the wider context of Scripture, including the teaching about the Second Adam, the only begotten Son of God, and Jesus' own words concerning the Father, the study encourages readers to examine whether Jesus was describing a literal pre-human existence or revealing a deeper spiritual truth about His divine mission. Read the full research at https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/


John 6:38 — How Did Jesus Come Down From Heaven?

Did Jesus Literally Exist in Heaven Before His Birth?

By Simon Brown


Part 1 — Quick Facts

One of the most frequently quoted verses used to support the belief that Jesus personally existed in heaven before His birth is John 6:38.

Jesus said:

"For I have come down from heaven, not that I should do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me."
(John 6:38)

Many Christians conclude from this single statement that Jesus was literally alive in heaven before He was born of Mary.

But is that really what Jesus meant?

Before reaching that conclusion, let us first examine the biblical facts.

Quick Facts

  • Jesus often taught using parables, figures of speech, allegories, and symbolic language (John 16:25).

  • In the same chapter, Jesus also called Himself "the bread that came down from heaven." No one believes Jesus was literal bread descending from the sky (John 6:51, 58).

  • Matthew and Luke both carefully record the birth of Jesus, yet neither writer says Jesus literally descended from heaven before His conception. Instead, they explain that Jesus was conceived in Mary's womb by the power of the Holy Spirit (Matthew 1:18; Luke 1:31–35).

  • Gabriel declared that Jesus "will be called the Son of God," describing His miraculous birth, not a return from a previous heavenly life (Luke 1:35).

  • Jesus is repeatedly described as the Christ, the Son of God, the promised Messiah, and the Second Adam—a true human being born into the world to redeem mankind.

  • Jesus repeatedly distinguished Himself from His Father, calling the Father "the only true God" (John 17:3).

  • The New Testament consistently teaches there is one God, the Father, and one Lord, Jesus Christ (1 Corinthians 8:6).

  • James teaches that "every good and perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of lights" (James 1:17). Jesus, God's greatest gift to the world, was likewise sent from the Father.

  • Later in John's Gospel, Jesus explains His words by saying:

    "I came forth from the Father and have come into the world."
    (John 16:28)

  • Throughout Scripture, Jesus presents Himself as the One sent by God, fulfilling God's eternal plan and purpose.

The Question We Must Answer

When Jesus said:

"I have come down from heaven,"

was He teaching that He literally lived in heaven before becoming a man?

Or was He using figurative language—as He so often did—to reveal that He had been sent into the world by His Father in heaven?

In this study, we will examine the birth accounts, the Gospel of John, the words of Jesus Himself, and the wider testimony of Scripture to discover what Jesus really meant when He declared:

"I have come down from heaven."

Rather than building a doctrine upon a single phrase, we will allow the whole Bible to explain one of the New Testament's most discussed statements.


Part 2 – Why This Verse Has Confused Millions

One of the main reasons why many Christians believe Jesus personally existed in heaven before His human birth is because of several statements Jesus made in John's Gospel.

Consider these passages:

"No one has ascended into heaven except the One who came down from heaven—the Son of Man."
John 3:13

"The One who comes from above is above all... The One coming from heaven is above all."
John 3:31

"For I have come down from heaven, not that I should do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me."
John 6:38

"You are from below; I am from above. You are of this world; I am not of this world."
John 8:23

When these verses are read on their own, it is easy to understand why many conclude that Jesus literally lived in heaven before His birth.

In fact, some of Jesus' own listeners reached the same conclusion.

John records their response:

"Is this not Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? How then can He say, 'I have come down from heaven'?"
John 6:42

Notice what happened.

The people listening to Jesus were puzzled because they knew His family.

They knew His mother.

They knew His earthly father.

They knew where He had grown up.

So they asked:

"How can He say, 'I have come down from heaven'?"

In other words, they understood Jesus' words literally.

This raises an important question.

Were the crowd correct in their understanding?

Or had they misunderstood Jesus' words, just as people often misunderstood many of His other teachings?

This was not the first time people misunderstood Jesus.

When He spoke about:

  • destroying the temple,

  • eating His flesh,

  • drinking His blood,

  • living water,

  • being born again,

  • or being the bread of life,

His audience frequently interpreted His words literally when Jesus intended them figuratively.

John's Gospel records many examples of this pattern.

Before we conclude that Jesus was describing a literal descent from heaven, we should first ask whether John intended his readers to recognise the same pattern here.

If Jesus was speaking figuratively, then His statement would harmonise perfectly with the rest of Scripture.

If He was speaking literally, then we must explain why neither Matthew nor Luke—who both carefully recorded Jesus' miraculous birth—ever mention Him descending from heaven before His conception.

That brings us to the birth accounts themselves.

Do Matthew and Luke describe Jesus as a heavenly person transformed into a human baby?

Or do they describe something entirely different?

Let us examine the biblical record.


Part 3 – Matthew and Luke Explain Exactly How Jesus Was Born

Before deciding what Jesus meant when He said,

"I have come down from heaven,"
(John 6:38)

we should first examine the two Gospel writers who recorded His birth.

If Jesus literally descended from heaven as a conscious person before becoming human, Matthew and Luke would surely tell us so.

Instead, they carefully explain exactly how Jesus came into existence as a human being.

Matthew begins by saying:

"Now the birth of Jesus Christ came about in this way..."
(Matthew 1:18)

Matthew then explains that Mary conceived Jesus through the Holy Spirit. He says nothing about Jesus descending from heaven, becoming a baby, or changing from a heavenly being into a human being.

Luke provides even more detail.

The angel Gabriel appeared to Mary and announced:

"You will conceive in your womb and bear a Son, and you shall call His name Jesus."
(Luke 1:31)

Notice the simplicity of Gabriel's announcement.

He does not say:

  • "A heavenly person will enter your womb."

  • "God will transform Himself into a baby."

  • "An angel will become a man."

  • "The Son will return from heaven."

Instead, Gabriel describes a miraculous conception.

Mary asks:

"How will this be, since I am a virgin?"

Gabriel answers:

"The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the Holy One to be born will be called the Son of God."
(Luke 1:35)

These words are extremely important.

Notice what Gabriel actually says.

The Holy Spirit—the power of the Most High God—would come upon Mary.

Because of this miraculous act of God:

"The Holy One to be born will be called the Son of God."

Luke describes Jesus' beginning as the miraculous work of God in Mary's womb. He does not describe Jesus as a heavenly person who left heaven and transformed into a human baby.

Gabriel also calls Jesus:

"The Son of the Most High."
(Luke 1:32)

Who is the Most High?

The Scriptures consistently identify the Most High as the one true God, the Father.

Gabriel therefore distinguishes between:

  • The Most High God, and

  • His Son, Jesus Christ.

He never says that Jesus is the Most High.

He says Jesus will be called the Son of the Most High.

Luke also records that:

"The Lord God will give Him the throne of His father David."
(Luke 1:32)

Again, notice the distinction.

The Lord God gives.

Jesus receives.

Throughout the birth narrative, Luke consistently distinguishes between God and His Son.

Nowhere does he describe Jesus as returning from a previous heavenly life.

Instead, he presents Jesus as the promised Messiah who was miraculously conceived by God's power and born into the world exactly as the prophets foretold.

This creates an important question.

If Matthew and Luke both explain Jesus' birth in such detail, why do neither of them ever mention Jesus literally descending from heaven before His conception?

Could it be that Jesus meant something different when He later said,

"I have come down from heaven"?

To answer that question, we must now examine how Jesus Himself often taught—through parables, figures of speech, and symbolic language.


Part 4 – Jesus Often Spoke Figuratively

Before deciding that Jesus literally descended from heaven before His birth, we should first ask an important question:

How did Jesus normally teach?

The answer is found throughout the Gospels.

Jesus frequently taught using parables, figures of speech, allegories, symbols, and illustrations.

Matthew tells us:

"Jesus spoke all these things to the crowds in parables; and He did not speak to them without a parable."
(Matthew 13:34)

Later, Jesus Himself told His disciples:

"These things I have spoken to you in figures of speech; an hour is coming when I will no longer speak to you in figures of speech, but will tell you plainly about the Father."
(John 16:25)

Notice Jesus' own words.

He openly admitted that many of His teachings were expressed in figurative language, requiring careful thought and spiritual understanding.

This is an important principle for interpreting His words.

Throughout His ministry, Jesus repeatedly used illustrations that His listeners often misunderstood because they interpreted them literally.

For example, Jesus said:

"I am the door."
(John 10:9)

No one believes Jesus was a literal wooden door.

He also declared:

"I am the true vine."
(John 15:1)

Again, no one imagines Jesus was a literal grapevine.

Jesus told His hearers:

"Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up."
(John 2:19)

His listeners thought He was speaking about the Temple in Jerusalem.

But John explains that Jesus was speaking about His body.

Perhaps the most striking example appears in John 6 itself.

Jesus said:

"Unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink His blood, you have no life in yourselves."
(John 6:53)

Many of His listeners were shocked.

Some even stopped following Him because they understood His words literally.

Yet Jesus was not teaching cannibalism.

He was using figurative language to describe believing in Him and receiving eternal life through His sacrifice.

Notice something remarkable.

The very same chapter that contains the words:

"I have come down from heaven."

also contains:

"I am the living bread that came down from heaven."
(John 6:51)

Surely no one believes that Jesus was literally a loaf of bread that floated down from the sky.

The bread is symbolic.

It represents the life that God gives through His Son.

This immediately raises another important question.

If Jesus was clearly speaking figuratively about being bread from heaven, could He also be speaking figuratively when He said He had come down from heaven?

The context certainly suggests that possibility.

Rather than describing a literal journey from heaven to earth, Jesus may have been revealing the divine origin of His mission.

He came from the Father.

He was sent by the Father.

He spoke the Father's words.

He accomplished the Father's will.

In other words, Jesus came from heaven because His mission, authority, and life all originated with God.

This interpretation harmonises perfectly with the birth accounts in Matthew and Luke, where Jesus is conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit and born as the Son of God.

It also prepares us to examine the next question:

If Jesus did not literally descend from heaven before His birth, what did He mean when He said He "came forth from the Father"?

That is the subject of our next section.


Part 5 – "I Came Forth From the Father"

One of the greatest keys to understanding John 6:38 is to allow Jesus to explain His own words.

Rather than relying on assumptions, we should ask:

How did Jesus Himself describe His origin?

Fortunately, Jesus answers that question very clearly.

John records:

"Knowing that the Father had given all things into His hands, and that He had come forth from God and was going to God."
John 13:3

Later, Jesus said:

"I came forth from the Father and have come into the world. Again, I am leaving the world and going to the Father."
John 16:28

These verses are extremely important.

Notice carefully what Jesus did not say.

He did not say:

  • "I returned from heaven."

  • "I came back to earth."

  • "I became human after living in heaven."

  • "I changed from a heavenly being into a man."

Instead, Jesus simply says:

"I came forth from the Father."

That is exactly what Matthew and Luke describe.

Jesus came into the world because the Father sent Him.

He was conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit.

He was born of Mary.

He was the Father's promised Messiah.

Everything about Jesus originated with God.

This perfectly agrees with what Gabriel told Mary:

"The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the Holy One to be born will be called the Son of God."
Luke 1:35

Notice the beautiful harmony between the Gospels.

Luke explains how Jesus came into the world.

John explains who sent Him.

There is no contradiction.

Jesus came from the Father because the Father was the source of His miraculous conception, His authority, His message, and His mission.

Jesus repeatedly emphasised this truth throughout John's Gospel.

He said:

"I have not come of My own accord, but He who sent Me is true."
John 7:28–29

Again:

"I have not spoken on My own authority, but the Father who sent Me has Himself given Me a commandment—what to say and what to speak."
John 12:49

Jesus consistently pointed away from Himself and toward His Father.

Everything He did came from the Father.

Everything He taught came from the Father.

Everything He accomplished was through the Father.

This is precisely why He could say:

"I have come down from heaven."

Not because He had previously lived in heaven as a conscious person, but because His life, authority, mission, and message all originated with the Father who is in heaven.

This interpretation also explains another statement made by Jesus.

He said:

"As the Father has sent Me into the world, I also have sent them into the world."
John 17:18

The disciples were sent into the world, yet no one believes they literally came down from heaven before beginning their ministry.

In the same way, Jesus was sent by His Father into the world to accomplish the work that the Father had given Him.

This understanding fits naturally with the whole testimony of Scripture and prepares us for another important passage.

James tells us that every good and perfect gift comes down from above.

Could that principle also explain why Jesus said He came down from heaven?

Let us examine what James wrote.


Part 6 – Every Good and Perfect Gift Comes Down from Heaven

If we wish to understand what Jesus meant when He said,

"I have come down from heaven,"
(John 6:38)

we should also examine how the Bible itself uses this same language elsewhere.

One of the clearest examples is found in the Epistle of James.

James writes:

"Every good and every perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of lights, with whom there is no variation or shifting shadow."
James 1:17

This verse teaches a simple but important principle.

Every good and perfect gift comes down from above.

But what does James mean?

Does every gift literally descend through the clouds from heaven?

Of course not.

James is teaching that every good gift has its origin in God.

God is the source.

God is the giver.

Everything that comes from Him may rightly be described as coming down from heaven, because heaven is God's dwelling place.

This biblical principle helps us understand Jesus' own words.

Jesus is described throughout the New Testament as God's greatest gift to mankind.

Jesus Himself said:

"For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, so that everyone believing in Him should not perish but have eternal life."
John 3:16

Notice carefully.

The Father gave His Son.

The Son was God's gift to the world.

Just as James says that every perfect gift comes down from above, so Jesus—the greatest gift ever given—came down from heaven because He came from the Father, who is in heaven.

This understanding agrees perfectly with the birth accounts.

Matthew and Luke explain how God gave His Son.

The Holy Spirit came upon Mary.

The power of the Most High overshadowed her.

Jesus was conceived by the miraculous power of God and born as the promised Messiah.

The Father remained in heaven.

His power accomplished the miracle on earth.

His Son was born into the world.

This also explains why Jesus repeatedly emphasised that He had been sent by the Father.

His authority came from the Father.

His message came from the Father.

His works came from the Father.

His life itself was God's gracious gift to the world.

Therefore, when Jesus said,

"I have come down from heaven,"

He was not necessarily describing a literal journey from heaven to earth.

Rather, He was declaring the divine origin of His mission.

He came from heaven because He came from God.

He came by God's power.

He came with God's authority.

He came to accomplish God's will.

This understanding also harmonises beautifully with another statement made by Jesus.

He said:

"You are from below; I am from above. You are of this world; I am not of this world."
John 8:23

What did Jesus mean when He said He was "from above"?

Was He describing His physical location before birth?

Or was He once again pointing to His heavenly origin, authority, and divine commission from the Father?

That is the next question we will now examine.


Part 7 – What Did Jesus Mean by “I Am From Above”?

Another passage often used to support the belief that Jesus literally lived in heaven before His birth is found in John 8.

Jesus said to the Jewish leaders:

"You are from below; I am from above. You are of this world; I am not of this world."
John 8:23

At first glance, some conclude that Jesus was teaching He had previously lived in heaven before becoming a man.

But is that really what He meant?

Once again, we must allow the whole Bible to explain Jesus' words.

Notice that Jesus contrasts two different origins.

He says:

"You are from below."

and

"I am from above."

He also says:

"You are of this world."

"I am not of this world."

Was Jesus speaking about where people were physically born?

Surely not.

The Jewish leaders standing before Him had all been born on earth.

Jesus Himself had also been born on earth through Mary.

His physical birth took place in Bethlehem, and He grew up in Nazareth.

Therefore, Jesus cannot simply be speaking about physical birthplace.

Instead, He is speaking about spiritual origin, authority, and character.

The religious leaders were thinking according to human wisdom.

Their minds were fixed on earthly things.

Jesus, however, had been sent by His Father.

His teaching came from above.

His authority came from above.

His mission came from above.

His life reflected the will of His heavenly Father.

Throughout John's Gospel, Jesus repeatedly emphasises this truth.

He said:

"My teaching is not Mine, but His who sent Me."
John 7:16

Again He declared:

"I do nothing on My own authority, but speak just as the Father taught Me."
John 8:28

Later He said:

"The words that I say to you I do not speak on My own authority, but the Father who dwells in Me does His works."
John 14:10

Notice the consistent pattern.

Everything about Jesus points back to the Father.

His message.

His authority.

His miracles.

His mission.

Even His life itself.

Jesus continually directed people's attention to the One who had sent Him.

This helps explain why He could truthfully say:

"I am from above."

He was not claiming to be a heavenly being disguised as a man.

Rather, He was declaring that everything He did originated with God, who is above.

This interpretation also agrees perfectly with James' teaching:

"Every good and every perfect gift is from above."
James 1:17

Jesus is God's greatest gift.

He is therefore from above because He comes from the Father, who is in heaven.

This understanding also harmonises beautifully with the birth accounts in Matthew and Luke.

God, who is above, brought His Son into the world through the miraculous conception of Mary.

Jesus was born on earth, but His origin, commission, and authority were from heaven because they came from God.

The same truth is beautifully expressed elsewhere in John's Gospel.

Jesus says:

"The Father has sent Me."

This raises another important question.

If Jesus was sent by the Father, does being sent require that He personally existed with the Father before His birth?

Or does the Bible use this language in another way?

That is the next question we shall examine.


Part 8 – Does Being “Sent by the Father” Mean Jesus Literally Pre-Existed?

Throughout John's Gospel, Jesus repeatedly describes Himself as the One sent by the Father.

In fact, this is one of the central themes of His ministry.

Jesus said:

"For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me."
John 6:38

Notice that Jesus immediately connects coming down from heaven with being sent by the Father.

The emphasis is not upon where Jesus previously lived.

The emphasis is upon who sent Him and whose will He came to accomplish.

This same truth appears throughout John's Gospel.

Jesus said:

"My food is to do the will of Him who sent Me and to accomplish His work."
John 4:34

Again:

"I seek not My own will but the will of Him who sent Me."
John 5:30

Again:

"My teaching is not Mine, but His who sent Me."
John 7:16

Again:

"The living Father sent Me, and I live because of the Father."
John 6:57

Notice the repeated pattern.

Jesus continually points away from Himself and toward His Father.

Everything He did was because the Father had sent Him.

Everything He taught came from the Father.

Everything He accomplished was in obedience to the Father.

The Father's will—not Jesus' previous location—is the focus of these passages.

This raises an important question.

Does the Bible always use the word "sent" to describe someone who literally existed with the sender before being sent?

The answer is clearly no.

John the Baptist is introduced with these words:

"There was a man sent from God, whose name was John."
John 1:6

No one suggests that John the Baptist consciously lived in heaven before his birth simply because he was sent from God.

Likewise, Jesus told His disciples:

"As the Father has sent Me into the world, I also have sent them into the world."
John 17:18

Again, after His resurrection, Jesus said:

"As the Father has sent Me, I also send you."
John 20:21

The disciples were sent into the world, yet no one believes they first lived in heaven before being sent.

The word "sent" describes a commission, a mission, and an appointment—not necessarily a previous heavenly existence.

The prophets were sent.

John the Baptist was sent.

The apostles were sent.

Jesus, above all, was sent.

But Jesus was sent in a unique way.

He was God's promised Messiah.

He was conceived by the Holy Spirit.

He was born of Mary.

He was the Father's only begotten Son, sent to accomplish the greatest mission in human history.

This understanding harmonises perfectly with everything we have already examined.

Matthew explains how Jesus was born.

Luke explains how God brought His Son into the world.

James explains that every perfect gift comes down from above.

John repeatedly explains that Jesus was sent by the Father.

Together, these passages present one consistent picture.

Jesus came down from heaven because He came from God, was sent by God, spoke God's words, accomplished God's will, and revealed God's character to the world.

This prepares us for one final question.

If Jesus truly meant that He had personally lived in heaven before His birth, why did He never simply say,

"I lived in heaven before I was born"?

Instead, He consistently described Himself as the One whom the Father sent.

That final point deserves careful examination.


Part 9 – The Bible Explains Itself

After carefully examining all of the evidence, one question remains.

Did Jesus really teach that He consciously lived in heaven before His birth?

Or have many readers misunderstood His words by interpreting figurative language literally?

When we allow the whole Bible to explain John 6:38, a remarkably consistent picture emerges.

Matthew explains how Jesus came into the world.

He writes:

"Now the birth of Jesus Christ came about in this way..."
(Matthew 1:18)

Matthew records Jesus' miraculous conception but says nothing about Jesus descending from heaven before becoming a human being.

Luke gives even more detail.

Gabriel tells Mary:

"The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the Holy One to be born will be called the Son of God."
(Luke 1:35)

Again, Luke explains how Jesus was conceived and born.

He does not describe Jesus leaving heaven and being transformed into a baby.

John then records Jesus saying:

"I have come down from heaven."
(John 6:38)

Yet in the very same chapter Jesus also says:

"I am the living bread that came down from heaven."
(John 6:51)

And again:

"This is the bread that came down from heaven."
(John 6:58)

Surely no one believes Jesus was literal bread.

Nor do we believe that eternal life comes from eating literal flesh and drinking literal blood.

Jesus was using powerful figurative language to teach profound spiritual truths.

The "bread from heaven" represents God's life-giving provision through His Son.

Likewise, Jesus "came down from heaven" because He came from the Father, who sent Him into the world to accomplish His saving purpose.

James beautifully confirms this same principle.

"Every good and every perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of lights."
(James 1:17)

No one imagines that every gift literally falls from the sky.

James simply means that every good gift originates with God.

Jesus is God's greatest gift.

Therefore He truly came down from heaven because His life, His mission, His authority, and His miraculous birth all originated with the Father who is in heaven.

This also explains why Jesus repeatedly said:

"I came forth from the Father."
(John 16:28)

And why He continually reminded His listeners:

"I have not come to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me."
(John 6:38)

The emphasis throughout John's Gospel is not upon Jesus returning from a previous heavenly existence.

The emphasis is upon the Father sending His Son into the world to accomplish His will.

Finally, Jesus Himself tells us who the Father is.

Praying to His Father, He says:

"This is eternal life, that they know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent."
(John 17:3)

Notice how Jesus distinguishes between:

  • the only true God, and

  • Jesus Christ whom He sent.

This perfectly agrees with Paul's words:

"For us there is one God, the Father... and one Lord, Jesus Christ."
(1 Corinthians 8:6)

The testimony of Scripture is wonderfully consistent.

The Father is the one true God.

Jesus is His only begotten Son, the promised Messiah, miraculously conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit, born of Mary, sent into the world by His Father, and given as God's greatest gift for the salvation of mankind.

When Jesus declared,

"I have come down from heaven,"

He was revealing the heavenly origin of His mission, His authority, His message, and God's gracious gift to the world—not necessarily describing a literal, conscious existence in heaven before His birth.

Final Thoughts

The safest way to understand any passage of Scripture is to read it in harmony with the whole Bible.

Rather than building an entire doctrine upon one expression, we should allow Matthew, Luke, John, James, Paul, and above all Jesus Himself to explain what those words mean.

When we do so, the message becomes beautifully clear.

Jesus came down from heaven because He came from God, He was sent by God, He was conceived by the power of God, and He came to accomplish the will of God.

As Jesus Himself said:

"For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me."
John 6:38


Questions We Must Answer

Before concluding that Jesus literally existed in heaven before His birth, every sincere student of Scripture should carefully consider the following questions:

  • If Jesus literally descended from heaven before becoming human, why do Matthew and Luke, who both carefully record His birth, never mention such an event?

  • Why does Gabriel simply say that Jesus "will be conceived" and "will be called the Son of God," rather than describing Him as returning from heaven?

  • Why did Jesus repeatedly tell His disciples that He often spoke in figures of speech and allegories (John 16:25)?

  • If Jesus literally came down from heaven, why does He also call Himself "the bread that came down from heaven" in the very same chapter?

  • Why does James describe every good and perfect gift as coming down from above if he is not speaking of a literal descent from heaven?

  • Why does Jesus repeatedly say that He was sent by the Father, rather than saying that He was returning from a previous heavenly existence?

  • Why does Jesus always distinguish Himself from His Father, calling the Father "the only true God" (John 17:3)?

  • Why does Paul write:

"For us there is one God, the Father... and one Lord, Jesus Christ."
(1 Corinthians 8:6)

instead of saying there is one God: Father, Son, and Holy Spirit?

  • Does the interpretation of John 6:38 harmonise with the whole Bible, or does it create difficulties with Matthew, Luke, James, and many other passages?

These are important questions that deserve honest and careful examination.


Final Appeal

The purpose of this study has not been to ask anyone to accept a particular tradition.

Rather, it has been to encourage every reader to do exactly what the Bereans did:

"They received the word with great eagerness, examining the Scriptures daily to see if these things were so."
(Acts 17:11)

The Bible repeatedly encourages believers to:

  • test every teaching,

  • examine the Scriptures,

  • hold fast to what is true,

  • and allow God's Word to interpret itself.

If we approach the Scriptures with humility and allow the whole Bible to explain each passage, we can avoid building doctrines upon isolated verses or misunderstood expressions.

My prayer is that this study will encourage you to continue searching the Scriptures with an open mind, always seeking the truth that comes from God.

As Jesus Himself said:

"If anyone wills to do His will, he shall know concerning the teaching, whether it is from God or whether I speak on My own authority."
(John 7:17)

May we all follow the example of the Bereans and let the inspired Scriptures be our final authority in every matter of faith.


Related articles:

  • John 17:5 — Did Jesus Exist with the Father Before the World Began?
  • John 8:58 — What Did Jesus Mean by "Before Abraham Was, I Am"?
  • John 1:15 & John 1:30 — Are the Modern Translations Misleading?