- For many years I believed what I had been taught about God, Jesus Christ, and the Trinity without personally examining the biblical evidence in depth.
- Over time I became convinced that every doctrine should be tested carefully against Scripture itself.
- Acts 17:11 encourages believers to examine the Scriptures daily to see whether these things were so.
- This book is the result of years of studying Scripture, comparing manuscripts, examining the Greek and Hebrew texts, and asking one simple question: What does the Bible actually say?
- My aim is to encourage every reader to examine the Scriptures carefully and allow God's Word to speak for itself.
Jesus said: 'Seek, and you will find.' (Matthew 7:7)
John 1:1 - Is the "Word" Jesus?
Chapter 1
John 1:1 — Is the "Word" Jesus?
Introduction
Few verses in the Bible have generated more discussion than John 1:1. Most readers assume 'the Word' is already a personal title for Jesus. This chapter examines the Greek text, the Old Testament background, and the biblical context to ask whether John intended 'the Word' to describe a second divine person or God's own word, purpose and self-expression.
The Word 'Word' — A Translation Issue
John 1:1 contains the Greek word logos. The earliest Greek manuscripts contain no distinction between 'Word' and 'word'. Capitalisation is an editorial decision in later translations.
Jesus Speaks of the Father's Word
In John 17:14 and John 17:17 Jesus again uses the same Greek word logos when referring to the Father's word, showing the ordinary use of the term within John's Gospel.
Historical Interpretations
This chapter compares the major historical interpretations and then evaluates them against the biblical and manuscript evidence.
Evidence Summary
The discussion concludes by gathering together the manuscript evidence, Greek usage and biblical context presented throughout the chapter.
https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2019/08/is-word-jesus-in-john-11.html
John 1:2 — "He" or "This"?
The very next verse continues:
"He was in the beginning with God."(Most English translations)
At first glance this appears straightforward. However, a closer examination of the Greek text reveals an important question.
The Greek begins with the demonstrative pronoun οὗτος (houtos).
Strong's Concordance defines οὗτος as:
this, this one, he, she, it.
Because Greek demonstrative pronouns can be translated in different ways depending on the context, translators must decide which English word best represents John's meaning.
Most modern translations choose the personal pronoun "He."
This naturally encourages readers to understand that John is already speaking about Jesus as a person existing with God in the beginning.
However, a more literal rendering is:
"This was in the beginning with God."
or
"This one was in the beginning with God."
This translation leaves the reader to discover John's meaning from the context rather than immediately identifying the subject as Jesus.
The question therefore becomes:
Was John referring to Jesus personally, or was he continuing to speak about God's Logos—His word, purpose, declaration and self-expression?
As we continue through John's prologue, I believe the evidence strongly favours the latter understanding.
The translation of John 1:1–4 has not always read as it does in most modern English Bibles.
Many of the earliest English translators understood the Greek Logos as referring to God's creative Word and therefore translated the pronouns as "it" rather than "him."
One of the most notable examples is William Tyndale, the great English Bible translator who devoted his life to making the Scriptures available to ordinary people. Tyndale was ultimately martyred in 1536 because of his determination to translate the Bible into English.
In his 1534 New Testament he translated John's opening verses as follows:
"In the beginnynge was the worde, and the worde was with God, and the worde was God. The same was in the beginnynge with God. All thinges were made by it, and without it was made nothinge that was made. In it was lyfe, and the lyfe was the lyght of men, and the lyght shyneth in the darcknes, but the darcknes comprehended it not."— William Tyndale, The New Testament (1534)
Notice that Tyndale consistently translated the passage using "it" rather than "him." This demonstrates that understanding the Logos as God's Word, rather than immediately identifying it as a separate person, is not a modern idea but has a long history in English Bible translation.
William Tyndale was not alone in this approach. Numerous early English translations—including the Geneva Bible (1560), Bishops' Bible (1568), and Lawrence Tomson's New Testament (1607)—also translated John 1:3–4 using "it."
This historical evidence shows that the rendering "it" has been recognised by respected translators for centuries and is not without precedent.
For readers who wish to examine this evidence in greater detail, I recommend comparing the many historical translations collected by Sir Anthony Buzzard in his study:
John 1 in 50+ English Translations
https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2019/07/john-1-in-50-english-translations.html
Studying these translations allows readers to see for themselves how English Bibles have rendered John's opening verses over the last five hundred years, and why the translation of the Greek Logos remains an important subject for careful biblical study.
Quick Fact: John 1:10 — Does ἐγένετο Always Mean "Came Into Being"?
John 1:10 is commonly translated:
"He was in the world, and the world came into being through Him, and the world did not know Him."
The Greek verb translated "came into being" is ἐγένετο (egeneto).
This word occurs over 200 times in the New Testament and has a much broader meaning than simply "was created." Depending on the context, it can mean:
- came to pass
- happened
- became
- occurred
- took place
- happened to be
- was fulfilled
For example:
Matthew 1:22
"Now all this came to pass (ἐγένετο) so that what was spoken by the Lord through the prophet might be fulfilled."
Here, ἐγένετο clearly does not mean "came into existence." Instead, it means "came to pass," "happened," or "was fulfilled."
Likewise:
- Matthew 8:16 — "When evening came..."
- Matthew 26:56 — "All this has come to pass..."
- Luke 2:15 — "When the angels had departed..."
- John 13:2 — "During supper..."
- Revelation 1:19 — "the things which are..."
In each case, ἐγένετο describes an event occurring or being fulfilled rather than something being created from nothing.
A Possible Reading of John 1:10
Because ἐγένετο often means "came to pass" or "happened," John 1:10 may legitimately be understood as emphasizing God's redemptive purpose being accomplished through Christ rather than the original creation of the universe.
One possible translation is:
"He was in the world, and through him the world's purpose came to pass, yet the world did not know him."
Or more literally:
"He was in the world, and through him the world came to pass, yet the world did not know him."
Within John's Gospel, this can naturally point toward the fulfilment of God's plan in Christ—the promised Messiah through whom the new creation is inaugurated (cf. John 3:16–17; 2 Corinthians 5:17).
Important Note
While ἐγένετο certainly can mean "came to pass," many Greek scholars understand John 1:10 as referring to the world's coming into existence because of the immediate context of John 1:3 ("All things came into being through him"). Therefore, this interpretation should be presented as a plausible contextual reading, rather than the only possible translation.
The important point is that ἐγένετο does not automatically mean "created." Its meaning must always be determined by the context, and throughout the New Testament it frequently refers to events, promises, or prophecies that came to pass rather than acts of creation.
"And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us."
(John 1:14)
John does not say:
"God became flesh and dwelt among us."
If John had intended to teach that Jesus was Almighty God who literally became a human being, this would have been the obvious place to say so. Instead, John writes:
"The Word became flesh."
This distinction is important.
Throughout John's Gospel, the emphasis is not that God became flesh, but that God's Word, purpose, promise and self-expression became a living human being in His Son, Jesus Christ.
The Only Begotten Son
John continues:
"And we beheld His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth."
Jesus is described as:
"the only begotten from the Father."
The word begotten naturally describes one who has been brought into existence by birth or generation from a father.
A begotten son is not the same person as his father.
Rather, he owes his existence to his father.
For this reason, I understand John to be teaching that Jesus is the Father's unique Son, not the same God from whom He was begotten.
The Word Became Flesh
John's statement simply tells us that God's Word became a real human being.
The promises of God, spoken throughout the Old Testament, were finally fulfilled in the birth of His Messiah.
This agrees perfectly with Galatians 4:4:
"But when the fullness of time had come, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law."
Paul describes Jesus as born of a woman.
He does not describe Jesus as changing from a heavenly spirit into a baby.
Instead, Jesus enters history through His human birth.
Jesus Was a Man
Peter declares:
"Men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved by God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did through Him."
(Acts 2:22)
Peter identifies Jesus simply as:
"a man."
He says nothing about Jesus previously existing as Almighty God, an angel, or another heavenly being before His birth.
Jesus Himself also says:
"But now you seek to kill Me, a man who has told you the truth that I heard from God."
(John 8:40)
Jesus calls Himself:
"a man."
He does not tell His listeners that He was once God in heaven before becoming human.
Born From the Seed of David
Paul likewise writes:
"Concerning His Son, who was born of the seed of David according to the flesh, and declared to be the Son of God with power by the resurrection from the dead."
(Romans 1:3–4)
Notice Paul's emphasis.
Jesus was:
- born from the seed of David
- according to the flesh
- declared to be the Son of God.
Paul never says that Jesus already existed as a conscious heavenly person before David.
Instead, he traces Jesus' human origin through David exactly as the prophets foretold.
This harmonises naturally with John 1:14:
"The Word became flesh."
God's Word became reality in the birth of His Messiah.
The Son of God
Jesus Himself said:
"Do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, 'You are blaspheming,' because I said, 'I am the Son of God'?"
(John 10:36)
Jesus claimed to be:
The Son of God.
He did not claim to be Almighty God Himself.
Did Jesus Literally Come Down From Heaven?
Some point to verses where Jesus says He "came down from heaven."
I understand these statements as describing His divine origin and commission rather than a literal journey from heaven as a conscious person.
Jesus teaches us to pray:
"Our Father who is in heaven..."
(Matthew 6:9)
Everything that comes from God may rightly be described as coming "from heaven."
James writes:
"Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of lights."
(James 1:17)
No one imagines that every blessing literally travels down through the sky.
Rather, they originate with God.
Likewise, Jesus is God's greatest gift to mankind.
God's Greatest Gift
John writes:
"For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, so that everyone believing in Him should not perish but have everlasting life."
(John 3:16)
Notice carefully what the verse says.
God gave His Son.
It does not say that God gave Himself.
The Father is the giver.
Jesus is the One who was given.
This perfectly agrees with the consistent teaching of the New Testament that the Father is the one true God, and Jesus is His uniquely begotten Son and Messiah.
My Conclusion
After studying John 1:14 alongside the wider teaching of Scripture, I understand the verse to mean that God's Word—His purpose, promise and self-expression—became a real human being in Jesus Christ.
The Word did not become God in human form.
Rather, God's Word was fulfilled in the birth of His only begotten Son.
Jesus entered history by being born of a woman, born from the seed of David, and revealed Himself as the Son of God and the Son of Man.
This understanding harmonises, in my view, with Acts 2:22, John 8:40, Romans 1:3–4, Galatians 4:4, John 10:36, James 1:17, and John 3:16.
Full article here:
https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2019/05/what-did-jesus-mean-i-and-father-are.html
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John 8:28 The FALSE Trinitarian Translations.
Aramaic Bible in Plain English
Yeshua spoke again to them: “When you have lifted up The Son of Man, then you shall know that I AM THE LIVING GOD, and I do nothing for my own pleasure, but just as my Father has taught me, so I am speaking.
Good News Translation
So he said to them, "When you lift up the Son of Man, you will know that 'I Am Who I Am'; then you will know that I do nothing on my own authority, but I say only what the Father has instructed me to say.
JOHN 8:58 THE QUICK FACTS! Before Abraham was, I am? https://youtu.be/PqBeUn4L2-k
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Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am."
Jesus was simply saying: Before Abraham existed, I am (He), I am the one, I am (He) the promised Messiah and deliverer, ORDAINED and chosen as the Begotten Son of GOD and Lamb of GOD before the foundations of the world.
Notice how Jesus DID NOT SAY: before Abraham was, I existed.
GOD THE SON IS A FALSE CHRIST.
Watch video here JOHN 8:58 THE QUICK FACTS! Before Abraham was, I am? https://youtu.be/PqBeUn4L2-k
Notice how the Greek word for Ἐγώ εἰμι I am (He) in John 9:9 said by the Blind Man is identical to what Jesus said in John 8:58 which also says ἐγὼ εἰμί, and yet the translators have not added in the word (He) in John 8:58 which is the correct context, proving Jesus is simply saying I am (He), meaning I am the one.
https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2018/01/scripture-no-3-john-858-was-gods-son.html
1 John 5:7
Full article here: https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2017/06/1-john-57-greatest-trinitarian-forgery.html
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Quick Facts – Colossians 1:16
Colossians 1:16 is one of the most frequently quoted passages used to argue that Jesus created the Genesis universe.
The Greek text begins with ἐν αὐτῷ (en autō), which literally means "in Him." Some English translations render this as "by Him," while others retain the more literal wording "in Him."
The Greek verb ἐκτίσθη (ektisthē) correctly means "were created." The important question is not the translation of the verb, but what Paul means by "all things."
Immediately after saying "all things," Paul specifies "thrones, dominions, rulers and authorities," directing attention to positions of authority rather than describing the six days of creation in Genesis.
Elsewhere the New Testament teaches that God exalted Jesus after His resurrection and gave Him all authority (Matthew 28:18; Acts 2:36; Philippians 2:9–11; Ephesians 1:20–22).
These passages raise the question of whether Colossians 1:16 is describing the new order established through God's exalted Messiah rather than the original creation account in Genesis.
The context of Colossians 1 emphasizes Christ's supremacy, resurrection, reconciliation, and God's purpose accomplished through Him.
Every reader should examine the immediate context before assuming Paul is referring to the Genesis creation.
The best approach is to compare translations, examine the Greek text, and allow Scripture to interpret Scripture.
"Test all things; hold fast what is good."
— 1 Thessalonians 5:21
FULL Article here: https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2021/07/the-false-translations-of-colossians.html



















