Acts 20:28 – What Does the Original Greek Really Say?

 

This Quick Facts study explores Acts 20:28 by comparing the original Greek text, Codex Sinaiticus, modern Bible translations, and manuscript evidence. Learn why many translations include footnotes and why careful examination of the text is essential before drawing conclusions.

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Acts 20:28 — Quick Facts

Do All Greek Manuscripts Really Say "God Purchased the Church with His Own Blood"?

One of the verses frequently cited in support of the doctrine that Jesus is God is Acts 20:28. But does the manuscript evidence really support that conclusion?

Quick Facts

• The manuscripts of Acts 20:28 contain textual variations, including readings such as "church of God" and "church of the Lord."

• Several modern Bible translations include footnotes informing readers that different ancient manuscripts preserve different readings.

• Some translations also render the verse:

  "the church of God, which he obtained with the blood of his own Son,"
  or include this understanding in the footnotes.

• The Greek expression τοῦ ἰδίου (tou idiou) literally means "of his own" and can be understood as referring to his own Son, depending on the context.

• Because of these manuscript differences, many Bible scholars acknowledge that Acts 20:28 is a textually disputed passage.

• The Codex Sinaiticus contains the reading "God" (Θεοῦ), while other manuscripts contain "Lord." This is one reason why modern translations often include explanatory footnotes.

Why the Footnotes Matter

Before building a doctrine on Acts 20:28, always read the translator's footnotes.

Many readers never notice that Bible translators themselves acknowledge alternative manuscript readings and possible translations.

What Does This Mean?

Acts 20:28 is one of several passages where the manuscript evidence is not entirely uniform. For that reason, the verse should be studied carefully alongside its textual notes, the original Greek, and the wider teaching of Scripture before using it as proof of any doctrine.

"Now these Jews were more noble than those in Thessalonica... examining the Scriptures daily to see if these things were so." — Acts 17:11

Does Acts 7:59 Really Say Stephen Was "Calling Upon God"?

This Quick Facts study examines Acts 7:59 by comparing the King James Version, modern translations, and the original Greek text. Does the Greek actually contain the words "calling upon God," or were those words supplied by translators? Compare the evidence and decide for yourself.

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Acts 7:59 — Quick Facts

Does Acts 7:59 Really Say Stephen Was "Calling Upon God"?

Acts 7:59 is sometimes quoted from the King James Version:

"And they stoned Stephen, calling upon God, and saying, Lord Jesus, receive my spirit."

Many readers naturally assume the words "calling upon God" mean Stephen was directly calling Jesus God.

But is that what the Greek text actually says?

Quick Facts

• The Greek text of Acts 7:59 does not contain the word "God" (θεός) in this verse.

• Many modern translations simply read:

  "And as they were stoning Stephen, he called out, 'Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.'"

• The Greek verb ἐπικαλούμενον (epikaloumenon) means calling out, calling upon, or invoking, but the object "God" is not present in the Greek text.

• The King James translators supplied the words "calling upon God" as part of their translation. In many editions, supplied words are indicated by italics.

• The interlinear Greek text shows Stephen calling out and then saying:

  "Lord Jesus, receive my spirit."
  There is no Greek word for "God" in the verse itself.

• Because of this, Acts 7:59 does not explicitly identify Jesus as God simply by using the phrase "calling upon God."

What Does This Mean?

Acts 7:59 certainly records Stephen addressing the risen Lord Jesus.

However, the verse itself does not contain the word "God" in the Greek text, so it should not be used as proof that Stephen called Jesus God on the basis of that added wording alone.

As always, every doctrine should be tested by comparing translations with the original Greek and by considering the wider teaching of Scripture.

"Test all things; hold fast what is good." — 1 Thessalonians 5:21

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Related links:

Old article here:

• The Greatest Commandment Ever Given — Who Is the One True God?
• Mark 12:29 — Why Did Jesus Quote the Shema?
• Deuteronomy 6:4 — The Shema: "Hear, O Israel, Yahweh Our God Is One"
• John 10:30 — What Did Jesus Mean by "I and the Father Are One"?
• John 8:58 — What Did Jesus Mean by "Before Abraham Was, I Am"?
• John 20:28 — Did Thomas Really Call Jesus Almighty God?
• John 14:9 — "He Who Has Seen Me Has Seen the Father" Explained
• John 17:5 — Did Jesus Exist with the Father Before the World Began?
• John 1:1 — Does "The Word Was God" Mean Jesus Is Almighty God?
• 2 Peter 1:1 — Another Trinitarian Misunderstanding?
• Colossians 1:15–17 — Does "Firstborn of All Creation" Mean Jesus Was Created?
• Hebrews 1:2 — Did God Create the Universe or the Ages Through His Son?
• Who Is the Alpha and the Omega?
• Did the Doctrine of the Trinity Originate with Jesus Christ and His Apostles?
• Is Jesus God, or the Son of God? What Does the Whole Bible Teach?
•  Scriptures Proving Yahweh: The One True God of Israel Is the Creator Alone.
• John 6:38 — How Did Jesus Come Down From Heaven?

John 8:58 — What Did Jesus Mean by "Before Abraham Was, I Am"?

This detailed infographic examines one of the Bible's most debated verses—John 8:58. By comparing the original Greek expression "ἐγώ εἰμί" with John 4:26, Strong's Concordance, Exodus 3:14, and the surrounding context, the article explores whether Jesus was claiming to be Almighty God or identifying Himself as the promised Messiah foreknown in God's plan before Abraham.

Quick Facts!

John 8:58 — What Did Jesus Mean by "Before Abraham Was, I Am"?

By Simon Brown

John 8:58 is one of the most frequently quoted passages by those who believe Jesus was claiming to be Almighty God when He said:

"Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am." (John 8:58)

Many conclude that Jesus was identifying Himself with God's words in Exodus 3:14, "I AM WHO I AM," and therefore teaching that He existed before Abraham as God Himself.

But is that what Jesus actually said?

The Quick Facts

• The Greek expression ἐγώ εἰμί (ego eimi) translated "I am" in John 8:58 is the same expression Jesus used in John 4:26, when He told the Samaritan woman:

  "I who speak to you am he (ἐγώ εἰμί)."

• In John 4:26, Jesus was identifying Himself as the promised Messiah, not claiming to be Almighty God.

• The titles Messiah (Μεσσίας) and Christ (Χριστός) mean "the Anointed One." They do not mean "I am God."

• The expression "I am" (ἐγώ εἰμί) appears many times throughout the New Testament and is used by various individuals simply to identify themselves. The phrase itself does not automatically carry the meaning, "I am God."

• Jesus never said:

  "Before Abraham was, I am God."

  Nor did He say:

  "I am the I AM who spoke to Moses."

• Earlier in the conversation Jesus declared:

  "Your father Abraham rejoiced that he would see My day. He saw it and was glad." (John 8:56)

  Jesus spoke about Abraham seeing His day, not about personally meeting Abraham.

• The Jews replied:

  "You are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?" (John 8:57)

  Notice that this was the Jews' interpretation, not Jesus' own words.

• Throughout the New Testament, Jesus is presented as the Messiah who was foreknown in God's plan before His manifestation:

  "He was foreknown before the foundation of the world but was made manifest in these last times for your sake." (1 Peter 1:20)

• Peter preached that Jesus was delivered according to:

  "the definite plan and foreknowledge of God." (Acts 2:23)

  This emphasises God's eternal purpose concerning Christ.

• John the Baptist also described Jesus as having pre-eminence (John 1:15; John 1:30), and Colossians presents Christ as before all things in God's redemptive purpose and supreme rank (Colossians 1:15–18).

The Simple Explanation

The context suggests that Jesus was identifying Himself as the promised Messiah, whose coming had been determined in God's plan long before Abraham lived.

Rather than declaring, "I am Almighty God," Jesus was affirming His unique place in God's purpose as the Christ—the One whom God had foreknown and sent into the world.

Sadly, many people read later theological ideas into John 8:58 instead of allowing the immediate context and the rest of Scripture to explain Jesus' words.

The question every reader should ask is simple:

What did Jesus actually say—and what did He mean within the context of John's Gospel?

2 Peter 1:1 — Who Is Peter Referring To? A Study of the Greek Text.

Who is Peter referring to in 2 Peter 1:1? This study examines the original Greek text, ancient manuscripts, and biblical context to determine whether the passage identifies Jesus as God or distinguishes between God the Father ("the God of us") and Jesus Christ the Lord. Research by Simon Brown.

Are the Modern Translations of John 1:15 and John 1:30 Misleading?

This Quick Facts infographic compares modern Bible translations with the Greek text of John 1:15 and John 1:30. It examines the meaning of the Greek expression translated "He was before me," the word πρῶτος (prōtos), and the biblical context to explore whether John the Baptist was describing Christ's rank and priority rather than teaching that Jesus consciously existed before His human birth.

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Quick Facts

The False Translation of John 1:15 & John 1:30

Did Jesus Really "Exist Before" John the Baptist?

Many modern Bible translations insert the word "existed" into John 1:15 and John 1:30.

This leads millions of readers to conclude that Jesus literally existed as a conscious person before His human birth.

But does the Greek text actually say "He existed before me"?

The evidence says no.

What Does the Greek Text Say?

When we examine the Greek Interlinear text of John 1:15 and John 1:30, there is no Greek word meaning "existed."

Instead, the text simply states:

"He was before me."

This is a significant difference.

The word "existed" is an interpretation added by translators, not a word found in the Greek text itself.

What Does "Before Me" Mean?

The Greek expression points to the idea of priority, precedence, rank, or importance, not necessarily personal pre-existence.

The key Greek word is associated with:

• First

• Before

• Chief

• Higher rank

• Principal

• Precedence

• Most important

This is why several translations correctly render the passage:

• "He was before me."

• "He has precedence over me."

• "He is preferred before me."

• "He had priority over me."

These translations reflect the Greek text without adding the word "existed."

John the Baptist's Meaning

John the Baptist was not teaching that Jesus lived as a heavenly person before His birth.

Rather, he was declaring that although Jesus began His public ministry after John, Jesus was always God's chosen Messiah, having first place in God's purpose and plan.

Jesus came after John chronologically, yet He held greater rank, honour, and authority.

Foreknown, Not Pre-Existing

The Bible repeatedly teaches that Jesus was:

• God's chosen Messiah.

• Foreknown before the foundation of the world.

• Revealed in these last days.

Peter writes:

"He was foreknown before the foundation of the world but was made manifest in these last times for your sake."

1 Peter 1:20

Peter speaks of God's foreknowledge, not of Jesus consciously living before His birth.

Colossians Agrees

Paul likewise declares:

"He is before all things."

Colossians 1:17

In its biblical context, this describes Christ's supremacy, rank, and pre-eminence as God's appointed Messiah, not necessarily His personal pre-existence.

Throughout Scripture, Christ is presented as first in importance, authority, and God's redemptive plan.

Conclusion

John 1:15 and John 1:30 do not require the translation:

"He existed before me."

The Greek text simply states:

"He was before me."

When read alongside the wider teaching of Scripture, John the Baptist is declaring Christ's priority, rank, honour, and God's eternal purpose, not that Jesus consciously existed before His human birth.

Rather than teaching pre-existence, these verses present Jesus as the promised Messiah, foreknown by God before the foundation of the world, revealed in the fullness of time, and given first place in God's plan of salvation.

Does 2 Peter 1:1 identify Jesus as Almighty God, or has this passage been misunderstood? This article examines the original Greek text, ancient manuscripts, and biblical context to determine whether Peter is referring to God the Father as "the God of us" and Jesus Christ as the Lord. Compare the evidence and decide what Peter actually wrote.

2 Peter 1:1 — Another Trinitarian Misunderstanding?

Quick Facts

Many Christians are taught that 2 Peter 1:1 identifies Jesus as "our God and Saviour."

However, when the passage is examined alongside Peter's own language, the Greek text, and the consistent teaching of the rest of Scripture, another explanation deserves careful consideration.

This article examines whether Peter is actually referring to two distinct persons:

• God the Father — "the God of us", and
• Jesus Christ — our Lord and Saviour.

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Full Article

One of the most frequently quoted verses in support of the Trinity is 2 Peter 1:1.

Many modern Bible translations read:

"...through the righteousness of our God and Saviour Jesus Christ."

Because of this wording, many readers conclude that Peter is directly calling Jesus "our God."

But is that really what Peter intended?

To answer that question, we must examine not only this verse but also Peter's own writing and the consistent testimony of Scripture.

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Peter's Own Context

Only one verse later Peter writes:

"Grace and peace be multiplied to you through the knowledge of God and of Jesus our Lord."

— 2 Peter 1:2

Notice that Peter clearly distinguishes between:

• God
• Jesus our Lord

They are presented as two distinct persons.

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The Expression "The God of Us"

The Greek text also contains the expression often translated:

"the God of us."

Throughout the New Testament this expression consistently refers to God the Father, not to Jesus.

Peter himself continues using this distinction throughout his letter.

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The Consistent Teaching of Scripture

This understanding agrees with numerous passages throughout the Bible.

Malachi declares:

"Have we not all one Father? Has not one God created us?"

— Malachi 2:10

Paul likewise writes:

"Since God is one..."

— Romans 3:30

Most importantly, Paul explains exactly who the one God is:

"Yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist."

— 1 Corinthians 8:6

Notice Paul's careful distinction.

He identifies:

• One God — the Father
• One Lord — Jesus Christ

The Father is identified as the one God, while Jesus is identified as the one Lord.

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Similar Expressions Elsewhere

This pattern appears repeatedly throughout the New Testament.

For example:

"To Titus, my true child in our common faith: Grace and peace from God the Father and Christ Jesus our Saviour."

— Titus 1:4

Likewise:

"...the appearing of the glory of our great God and Saviour Jesus Christ."

— Titus 2:13

These passages have long been discussed because they involve questions of Greek grammar and translation. Whatever conclusion one reaches, they should be interpreted in harmony with the broader teaching of Scripture rather than in isolation.

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Conclusion

The Bible consistently teaches that:

• God the Father is the one God.
• Jesus Christ is God's Messiah, Lord, and Saviour.

This article therefore examines whether 2 Peter 1:1 should be understood as distinguishing God the Father ("the God of us") from Jesus Christ, rather than identifying Jesus as the one God.

As always, I encourage every reader to compare the oldest available manuscripts, study the Greek text carefully, and test every conclusion against the whole counsel of Scripture.

"Test all things; hold fast what is good."

— 1 Thessalonians 5:21