Is Believing Jesus Is God Required for Salvation?

Must a person believe that Jesus is God in order to be saved? This study compares the claims of various Christian traditions with the direct statements of Scripture to examine what the Bible actually teaches about salvation.

Quick Facts: Testing Traditional Teachings Against the Biblical Evidence!

Should every Christian belief be accepted simply because it has been taught for centuries? This Quick Facts series encourages readers to compare every doctrine with Scripture, biblical context, archaeology, ancient manuscripts, and historical evidence. Covering subjects such as the Trinity, false Bible translations, and other traditional teachings, these studies invite readers to follow the Berean example by examining the Scriptures carefully and testing everything against God's Word.

Quick Facts:

 That Challenge Traditional Trinitarian Interpretations.

 That Raise Questions About Traditional Bible Translations.

That's Worth Considering About the Trinity.

 Evidence from the Greek Text.

And Re-examining Christian Traditional Interpretations.

Scriptures are mostly by Berean Literal Bible unless otherwise stated.

All images on this blog made by Simon Brown maybe freely used.

• For many years I believed what I had been taught about God, Jesus Christ, and the Trinity without personally examining the biblical evidence in depth.
• Over time I became convinced that every doctrine should be tested carefully against Scripture itself.
• Acts 17:11 encourages believers to examine the Scriptures daily to see whether these things were so.
• This book is the result of years of studying Scripture, comparing manuscripts, examining the Greek and Hebrew texts, and asking one simple question: What does the Bible actually say?
• My aim is to encourage every reader to examine the Scriptures carefully and allow God's Word to speak for itself.

Jesus said: 'Seek, and you will find.' (Matthew 7:7)

Let's start at the (beginning), at John 1:1.

Let's have a look at John 1:1.

Click on image to enlarge!

John 1:1 - Is the "Word" Jesus?

In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and the word was God.

 Chapter 1

John 1:1 — Is the "Word" Jesus?

Introduction

Few verses in the Bible have generated more discussion than John 1:1. Most readers assume 'the Word' is already a personal title for Jesus. This chapter examines the Greek text, the Old Testament background, and the biblical context to ask whether John intended 'the Word' to describe a second divine person or God's own word, purpose and self-expression.

The Word 'Word' — A Translation Issue

John 1:1 contains the Greek word logos. The earliest Greek manuscripts contain no distinction between 'Word' and 'word'. Capitalisation is an editorial decision in later translations.

Jesus Speaks of the Father's Word

In John 17:14 and John 17:17 Jesus again uses the same Greek word logos when referring to the Father's word, showing the ordinary use of the term within John's Gospel.

Historical Interpretations

This chapter compares the major historical interpretations and then evaluates them against the biblical and manuscript evidence.

Evidence Summary

The discussion concludes by gathering together the manuscript evidence, Greek usage and biblical context presented throughout the chapter.

Full article here:
https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2019/08/is-word-jesus-in-john-11.html

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John 1:2 — "He" or "This"?

The very next verse continues:

"He was in the beginning with God."

(Most English translations)

At first glance this appears straightforward. However, a closer examination of the Greek text reveals an important question.

The Greek begins with the demonstrative pronoun οὗτος (houtos).

Strong's Concordance defines οὗτος as:

this, this one, he, she, it.

Because Greek demonstrative pronouns can be translated in different ways depending on the context, translators must decide which English word best represents John's meaning.

Most modern translations choose the personal pronoun "He."

This naturally encourages readers to understand that John is already speaking about Jesus as a person existing with God in the beginning.

However, a more literal rendering is:

"This was in the beginning with God."

or

"This one was in the beginning with God."

This translation leaves the reader to discover John's meaning from the context rather than immediately identifying the subject as Jesus.

The question therefore becomes:

Was John referring to Jesus personally, or was he continuing to speak about God's Logos—His word, purpose, declaration and self-expression?

As we continue through John's prologue, I believe the evidence strongly favours the latter understanding.

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John 1:3 — Through "Him" or Through "It"?

John continues:

"All things were made through him, and without him was not anything made that has been made."

(Most English translations)

Because most English Bibles use the word "him," many readers naturally conclude that God created the universe through Jesus before His birth.

But is this necessarily what John intended?

As with verse 2, the translation depends upon how the reader understands the Logos introduced in verse 1.

If the Logos is already assumed to be Jesus, translators naturally continue using the masculine pronoun "him."

However, this has not always been the case.

Many respected English translations produced before the King James Version rendered the passage differently.

For example:

William Whittingham (1557):

"All thinges were made by it, and without it was made nothing that was made."

Geneva Bible (1560):

"All things were made by it, and without it was made nothing that was made."

Bishops' Bible (1568):

"All things were made by it, and without it was made nothing that was made."

Lawrence Tomson's New Testament (1607):

"All things were made by it, and without it was made nothing that was made."

These early English translators evidently understood John's Logos as God's creative word rather than as a separate divine person.

More recently, Anthony Buzzard has translated John's prologue in a similar way:

"Everything came into being through it, and without it nothing came into existence."

This demonstrates that translating the passage using "it" is neither new nor unprecedented.

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So What Did John Mean?

The answer is found long before John's Gospel was written.

Psalm 33:6 provides the Old Testament background that John expected his readers to recognise.

"By Yahweh's word the heavens were made, and all their army by the breath of His mouth."

(World English Bible)

Notice carefully what the Psalm says.

Creation came about through:

• Yahweh's word,
• and the breath of His mouth.

No second divine person is mentioned.

The creative power belongs entirely to Yahweh Himself.

This explains why John can say:

"The Word was with God."

God's word belongs to God.

It proceeds from Him.

It expresses His own mind, purpose and will.

John can also write:

"The Word was God."

Not because the Word is another divine person alongside God, but because God's own word perfectly expresses God Himself.

Just as our own words express our thoughts without becoming another person, God's Word expresses His wisdom, purpose and creative power.

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What Is the Logos?

Strong's Concordance defines λόγος (Logos) as:

"a word; a statement; a speech; a message; an expression of thought."

Throughout Scripture, God's Word is His divine utterance—His declaration, wisdom, purpose, plan and command.

John nowhere says that the Logos is a second divine person existing beside God before creation.

Instead, he introduces the Logos exactly where Genesis begins—with God speaking.

"And God said..." (Genesis 1:3)

Creation came into existence because God spoke.

His spoken Word accomplished His will.

This understanding harmonises perfectly with Psalm 33:6 and with the repeated declarations throughout the Old Testament that Yahweh alone created all things.

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God Alone Is the Creator

Throughout the Old Testament, Yahweh repeatedly declares that He alone created the heavens and the earth.

For example:

"I am Yahweh, who makes all things, who alone stretched out the heavens, who spread out the earth by Myself."

(Isaiah 44:24)

This raises an important question.

If Jesus personally stood beside God as a second divine creator before His birth, why do we never find the Father saying:

"I created all things through My Son."

Instead, Scripture repeatedly says:

• I alone created.
• By Myself.
• There is no God with Me.

These declarations form the Old Testament foundation upon which John's opening words should be understood.

Rather than introducing another divine person, John points his readers back to the One True God of Genesis—the God who created all things by His own spoken Word.

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John 1:4 — The Correct Meaning

The translation of John 1:1–4 has not always read as it does in most modern English Bibles.

Many of the earliest English translators understood the Greek Logos as referring to God's creative Word and therefore translated the pronouns as "it" rather than "him."

One of the most notable examples is William Tyndale, the great English Bible translator who devoted his life to making the Scriptures available to ordinary people. Tyndale was ultimately martyred in 1536 because of his determination to translate the Bible into English.

In his 1534 New Testament he translated John's opening verses as follows:

"In the beginnynge was the worde, and the worde was with God, and the worde was God. The same was in the beginnynge with God. All thinges were made by it, and without it was made nothinge that was made. In it was lyfe, and the lyfe was the lyght of men, and the lyght shyneth in the darcknes, but the darcknes comprehended it not."

— William Tyndale, The New Testament (1534)

Notice that Tyndale consistently translated the passage using "it" rather than "him." This demonstrates that understanding the Logos as God's Word, rather than immediately identifying it as a separate person, is not a modern idea but has a long history in English Bible translation.

William Tyndale was not alone in this approach. Numerous early English translations—including the Geneva Bible (1560), Bishops' Bible (1568), and Lawrence Tomson's New Testament (1607)—also translated John 1:3–4 using "it."

This historical evidence shows that the rendering "it" has been recognised by respected translators for centuries and is not without precedent.

For readers who wish to examine this evidence in greater detail, I recommend comparing the many historical translations collected by Sir Anthony Buzzard in his study:

John 1 in 50+ English Translations

https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2019/07/john-1-in-50-english-translations.html

Studying these translations allows readers to see for themselves how English Bibles have rendered John's opening verses over the last five hundred years, and why the translation of the Greek Logos remains an important subject for careful biblical study.

There are translations are confirmed by many like William Tyndale, martyred for his efforts to get the Bible to the public.

“In the beginnynge was the worde, and the worde was with God, and the worde was god. The same was in the beginnynge with god. All thinges were made by it, and without it, was made nothinge that was made. In it was lyfe, and the lyfe was the lyght of men, and the lyght shyneth in the darcknes but the darcknes comprehended it not” (William Tyndale, The New Testament, 1534).

Please read John 1 in 50+ English Translations By Sir Anthony Buzzard. https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2019/07/john-1-in-50-english-translations.html

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Quick Fact: John 1:10 — Does ἐγένετο Always Mean "Came Into Being"?

John 1:10 is commonly translated:

"He was in the world, and the world came into being through Him, and the world did not know Him."

The Greek verb translated "came into being" is ἐγένετο (egeneto).

This word occurs over 200 times in the New Testament and has a much broader meaning than simply "was created." Depending on the context, it can mean:

• came to pass
• happened
• became
• occurred
• took place
• happened to be
• was fulfilled

For example:

Matthew 1:22

"Now all this came to pass (ἐγένετο) so that what was spoken by the Lord through the prophet might be fulfilled."

Here, ἐγένετο clearly does not mean "came into existence." Instead, it means "came to pass," "happened," or "was fulfilled."

Likewise:

• Matthew 8:16 — "When evening came..."
• Matthew 26:56 — "All this has come to pass..."
• Luke 2:15 — "When the angels had departed..."
• John 13:2 — "During supper..."
• Revelation 1:19 — "the things which are..."

In each case, ἐγένετο describes an event occurring or being fulfilled rather than something being created from nothing.

A Possible Reading of John 1:10

Because ἐγένετο often means "came to pass" or "happened," John 1:10 may legitimately be understood as emphasizing God's redemptive purpose being accomplished through Christ rather than the original creation of the universe.

One possible translation is:

"He was in the world, and through him the world's purpose came to pass, yet the world did not know him."

Or more literally:

"He was in the world, and through him the world came to pass, yet the world did not know him."

Within John's Gospel, this can naturally point toward the fulfilment of God's plan in Christ—the promised Messiah through whom the new creation is inaugurated (cf. John 3:16–17; 2 Corinthians 5:17).

Important Note

While ἐγένετο certainly can mean "came to pass," many Greek scholars understand John 1:10 as referring to the world's coming into existence because of the immediate context of John 1:3 ("All things came into being through him"). Therefore, this interpretation should be presented as a plausible contextual reading, rather than the only possible translation.

The important point is that ἐγένετο does not automatically mean "created." Its meaning must always be determined by the context, and throughout the New Testament it frequently refers to events, promises, or prophecies that came to pass rather than acts of creation.

Full article here:

https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2019/10/the-false-trinitarian-translations-of.html

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Quick Fact's: John 1:14 — The Correct Meaning

"And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us."
(John 1:14)

John does not say:

"God became flesh and dwelt among us."

If John had intended to teach that Jesus was Almighty God who literally became a human being, this would have been the obvious place to say so. Instead, John writes:

"The Word became flesh."

This distinction is important.

Throughout John's Gospel, the emphasis is not that God became flesh, but that God's Word, purpose, promise and self-expression became a living human being in His Son, Jesus Christ.

The Only Begotten Son

John continues:

"And we beheld His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth."

Jesus is described as:

"the only begotten from the Father."

The word begotten naturally describes one who has been brought into existence by birth or generation from a father.

A begotten son is not the same person as his father.

Rather, he owes his existence to his father.

For this reason, I understand John to be teaching that Jesus is the Father's unique Son, not the same God from whom He was begotten.

The Word Became Flesh

John's statement simply tells us that God's Word became a real human being.

The promises of God, spoken throughout the Old Testament, were finally fulfilled in the birth of His Messiah.

This agrees perfectly with Galatians 4:4:

"But when the fullness of time had come, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law."

Paul describes Jesus as born of a woman.

He does not describe Jesus as changing from a heavenly spirit into a baby.

Instead, Jesus enters history through His human birth.

Jesus Was a Man

Peter declares:

"Men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved by God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did through Him."
(Acts 2:22)

Peter identifies Jesus simply as:

"a man."

He says nothing about Jesus previously existing as Almighty God, an angel, or another heavenly being before His birth.

Jesus Himself also says:

"But now you seek to kill Me, a man who has told you the truth that I heard from God."
(John 8:40)

Jesus calls Himself:

"a man."

He does not tell His listeners that He was once God in heaven before becoming human.

Born From the Seed of David

Paul likewise writes:

"Concerning His Son, who was born of the seed of David according to the flesh, and declared to be the Son of God with power by the resurrection from the dead."
(Romans 1:3–4)

Notice Paul's emphasis.

Jesus was:

• born from the seed of David
• according to the flesh
• declared to be the Son of God.

Paul never says that Jesus already existed as a conscious heavenly person before David.

Instead, he traces Jesus' human origin through David exactly as the prophets foretold.

This harmonises naturally with John 1:14:

"The Word became flesh."

God's Word became reality in the birth of His Messiah.

The Son of God

Jesus Himself said:

"Do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, 'You are blaspheming,' because I said, 'I am the Son of God'?"
(John 10:36)

Jesus claimed to be:

The Son of God.

He did not claim to be Almighty God Himself.

Did Jesus Literally Come Down From Heaven?

Some point to verses where Jesus says He "came down from heaven."

I understand these statements as describing His divine origin and commission rather than a literal journey from heaven as a conscious person.

Jesus teaches us to pray:

"Our Father who is in heaven..."
(Matthew 6:9)

Everything that comes from God may rightly be described as coming "from heaven."

James writes:

"Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of lights."
(James 1:17)

No one imagines that every blessing literally travels down through the sky.

Rather, they originate with God.

Likewise, Jesus is God's greatest gift to mankind.

God's Greatest Gift

John writes:

"For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, so that everyone believing in Him should not perish but have everlasting life."
(John 3:16)

Notice carefully what the verse says.

God gave His Son.

It does not say that God gave Himself.

The Father is the giver.

Jesus is the One who was given.

This perfectly agrees with the consistent teaching of the New Testament that the Father is the one true God, and Jesus is His uniquely begotten Son and Messiah.

My Conclusion

After studying John 1:14 alongside the wider teaching of Scripture, I understand the verse to mean that God's Word—His purpose, promise and self-expression—became a real human being in Jesus Christ.

The Word did not become God in human form.

Rather, God's Word was fulfilled in the birth of His only begotten Son.

Jesus entered history by being born of a woman, born from the seed of David, and revealed Himself as the Son of God and the Son of Man.

This understanding harmonises, in my view, with Acts 2:22, John 8:40, Romans 1:3–4, Galatians 4:4, John 10:36, James 1:17, and John 3:16.

Full article here:

https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2020/07/what-is-word-and-glory-as-spoken-about.html

Also read: John 8:40 The FALSE Trinitarian Translations, And MORE Biblical Facts Jesus Did NOT PRE-EXIST His Flesh https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2020/06/john-840-false-trinitarian-translations.html

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Are the Modern Translations of John 1:15 and John 1:30 Misleading?

This Quick Facts infographic compares modern Bible translations with the Greek text of John 1:15 and John 1:30. It examines the meaning of the Greek expression translated "He was before me," the word πρῶτος (prōtos), and the biblical context to explore whether John the Baptist was describing Christ's rank and priority rather than teaching that Jesus consciously existed before His human birth.

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Quick Facts

The False Translation of John 1:15 & John 1:30

Did Jesus Really "Exist Before" John the Baptist?

Many modern Bible translations insert the word "existed" into John 1:15 and John 1:30.

This leads millions of readers to conclude that Jesus literally existed as a conscious person before His human birth.

But does the Greek text actually say "He existed before me"?

The evidence says no.

What Does the Greek Text Say?

When we examine the Greek Interlinear text of John 1:15 and John 1:30, there is no Greek word meaning "existed."

Instead, the text simply states:

"He was before me."

This is a significant difference.

The word "existed" is an interpretation added by translators, not a word found in the Greek text itself.

What Does "Before Me" Mean?

The Greek expression points to the idea of priority, precedence, rank, or importance, not necessarily personal pre-existence.

The key Greek word is associated with:

• First

• Before

• Chief

• Higher rank

• Principal

• Precedence

• Most important

This is why several translations correctly render the passage:

• "He was before me."

• "He has precedence over me."

• "He is preferred before me."

• "He had priority over me."

These translations reflect the Greek text without adding the word "existed."

John the Baptist's Meaning

John the Baptist was not teaching that Jesus lived as a heavenly person before His birth.

Rather, he was declaring that although Jesus began His public ministry after John, Jesus was always God's chosen Messiah, having first place in God's purpose and plan.

Jesus came after John chronologically, yet He held greater rank, honour, and authority.

Foreknown, Not Pre-Existing

The Bible repeatedly teaches that Jesus was:

• God's chosen Messiah.

• Foreknown before the foundation of the world.

• Revealed in these last days.

Peter writes:

"He was foreknown before the foundation of the world but was made manifest in these last times for your sake."

1 Peter 1:20

Peter speaks of God's foreknowledge, not of Jesus consciously living before His birth.

Colossians Agrees

Paul likewise declares:

"He is before all things."

Colossians 1:17

In its biblical context, this describes Christ's supremacy, rank, and pre-eminence as God's appointed Messiah, not necessarily His personal pre-existence.

Throughout Scripture, Christ is presented as first in importance, authority, and God's redemptive plan.

Conclusion

John 1:15 and John 1:30 do not require the translation:

"He existed before me."

The Greek text simply states:

"He was before me."

When read alongside the wider teaching of Scripture, John the Baptist is declaring Christ's priority, rank, honour, and God's eternal purpose, not that Jesus consciously existed before His human birth.

Rather than teaching pre-existence, these verses present Jesus as the promised Messiah, foreknown by God before the foundation of the world, revealed in the fullness of time, and given first place in God's plan of salvation.

See the FULL Article here: https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2021/03/the-false-translations-of-john-115-john.html

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This Quick Facts poster introduces the key questions surrounding John 10:30. Did Jesus claim to be Almighty God, or was He speaking of unity with His Father? This study examines the surrounding context, Jesus' own explanation, and related passages in John's Gospel to help readers understand what Jesus really meant.

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Quick Facts: John 10:30 — What Did Jesus Mean?

• Jesus said, "I and the Father are one" (John 10:30), but He did not say, "I and the Father are one God."

• Many Christians believe this verse proves Jesus is Almighty God, while others understand Jesus to be speaking of unity, agreement, and purpose with His Father.

• The Jews accused Jesus of making Himself God (John 10:33), but did they correctly understand His words, or did Jesus explain what He actually meant?

• Jesus immediately responded by saying, "I said, 'I am the Son of God'" (John 10:36). Why did He answer in this way?

• Later in John's Gospel, Jesus prayed that His disciples "may all be one," just as He and the Father are one (John 17:20–23). What kind of oneness was He describing?

• This study examines the immediate context of John 10, compares it with the rest of John's Gospel, and allows Jesus' own words to explain His meaning.

• Our goal is not to defend tradition but to compare Scripture with Scripture and discover what Jesus was really teaching.

Full article here:
https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2019/05/what-did-jesus-mean-i-and-father-are.html
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John 8:28 The FALSE Trinitarian Translations.

Aramaic Bible in Plain English
Yeshua spoke again to them: “When you have lifted up The Son of Man, then you shall know that I AM THE LIVING GOD, and I do nothing for my own pleasure, but just as my Father has taught me, so I am speaking.

Good News Translation
So he said to them, "When you lift up the Son of Man, you will know that 'I Am Who I Am'; then you will know that I do nothing on my own authority, but I say only what the Father has instructed me to say.

As we see both of the false translations say: then you shall know that I AM THE LIVING GOD, or  'I Am Who I Am' DECEIVING many into wrongly believing Jesus is THE LIVING GOD, or is Yahweh the One True GOD at Mount Sinai.

Now for the correct translation:

Berean Literal Bible

Therefore Jesus said to them, "When you shall have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am He, and I do nothing from Myself; but as the Father taught Me, I speak these things.

The Correct Meaning:

Jesus is simply IDENTIFYING Himself by saying: I am (He), The one, The Chosen Messiah, The Anointed One of GOD, The Promised Deliverer, The Begotten Son of The One True GOD), who is fulfilling all the Bible Prophecies, who was foreknown, NOT PRE-EXISTING, and chosen before the foundations of the world 1 Peter 1:20.

There is no Greek word saying (He), but instead the (He) is added in for the correct context, just as there is no (He) in John 8:24, and in John 8:58.

However we know the (He) added in is the correct context simply because Jesus said the same identical Greek word Ἐγώ εἰμι in John 4:26 IDENTIFYING Himself as The One, The Chosen Messiah, because: The woman says to Him, "I know that Messiah is coming, who is called Christ; when He comes, He will tell us all things." John 4:25, and Jesus CONFIRMS: Jesus says to her, "I who am speaking to you am He."  

Also the Blind MAN in John 9:9 said the same identical Greek word (Ἐγώ εἰμι I am He) when He was simply IDENTIFYING Himself: I am (He), meaning I am the one.

Please watch my video: 

JOHN 8:58 THE QUICK FACTS! Before Abraham was, I am? https://youtu.be/PqBeUn4L2-k
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This detailed infographic examines one of the Bible's most debated verses—John 8:58. By comparing the original Greek expression "ἐγώ εἰμί" with John 4:26, Strong's Concordance, Exodus 3:14, and the surrounding context, the article explores whether Jesus was claiming to be Almighty God or identifying Himself as the promised Messiah foreknown in God's plan before Abraham.

The false Translation of John 8:58

Aramaic Bible in Plain English

Yeshua said to them: “Timeless truth I speak to you: Before Abraham would exist, I AM THE LIVING GOD.”

The correct translation of John 8:58.

John 8:58  The Correct Meaning.

Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am."

Jesus was simply saying: Before Abraham existed, I am (He), I am the one, I am (He) the promised Messiah and deliverer, ORDAINED and chosen as the Begotten Son of GOD and Lamb of GOD before the foundations of the world.

Notice how Jesus DID NOT SAY: before Abraham was, I existed.

Notice how Jesus DID NOT SAY: before Abraham was, I am - GOD.

Notice how Jesus DID NOT SAY: before Abraham was, I was alive with GOD.

 
Watch video here JOHN 8:58 THE QUICK FACTS! Before Abraham was, I am?  https://youtu.be/PqBeUn4L2-k

Notice how the Greek word for Ἐγώ εἰμι I am (He) in John 9:9 said by the Blind Man is identical to what Jesus said in John 8:58 which also says ἐγὼ εἰμί, and yet the translators have not added in the word (He) in John 8:58 which is the correct context, proving Jesus is simply saying I am (He), meaning I am the one.  

Notice here in John 8:58 which says ἐγὼ εἰμί, (I am) is IDENTICAL to what the Blind Man said in John 9:9 and yet the (He) has not been added in the translations of John 8:58, proving Jesus is simply saying: I am (He), I am the one, IDENTIFYING Himself as the promised Messiah and deliverer, saying: Before Abraham was, I am the promised Messiah and deliverer.

Does (I am), mean, (I am) GOD, John 8:58?

Full article here:
https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2018/01/scripture-no-3-john-858-was-gods-son.html

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This infographic examines the Johannine Comma found in some versions of 1 John 5:7. It compares the original Greek manuscripts with the later expanded reading and explores the historical, textual, and manuscript evidence behind one of the most famous additions to the New Testament. Discover why many modern Bible translations either omit the passage or place it in a footnote. Read the full research at https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/

1 John 5:7

The FALSE Trinitarian Translation.

King James Bible

For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

This translation of 1 John 5:7 is used by countless Trinitarians to prove GOD is THREE called the TRINITY.

However did you know the words saying: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one, ARE FALSE as the words are NOT in the oldest Greek Bibles and were added in some modern translations to support the TRINITY doctrine.

The Correct translation instead says: 

7 For there are three bearing testimony: 8 the Spirit and the water and the blood—and these are three in one. 1 John 5:7-8.

Full article here: https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2017/06/1-john-57-greatest-trinitarian-forgery.html
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Matthew 28:19

The FALSE Trinitarian Translation.

Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit. BLB.

DID YOU KNOW?

The correct translation of Matt 28:19-20  says:

"Go and teach them to carry out all the things which I have commanded you forever."

Notice, there is NO Trinitarian formula saying: the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.

With that in mind, when we search the scriptures, we discover how the disciples DID NOT use the Trinitarian phrase, but only ever baptised in the name of the Lord Jesus ONLY.

On hearing this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.

 Acts 19:5.

Full article here: https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2017/11/matthew-2819-trinitarian-formula-father.html

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1 Timothy 3:16

The FALSE Trinitarian Translation.

King James Bible

And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh,

There are many FALSE modern Trinitarian Translations saying: God was manifest in the flesh, which is DECEIVING many into believing Jesus was GOD who became FLESH.

However, the correct Translations is the Greek word (Ὃς Who) meaning, He Jesus was manifest in the flesh.

The SIMPLE facts are, Jesus was a MAN and the SON of MAN.

Contrary to the fact that: GOD IS NOT MAN, THAT HE SHOULD LIE, OR A SON OF MAN Numbers 23:19.

Full article here: https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2017/06/1-timothy-316-yet-again-another.html

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Quick Facts – Colossians 1:16

• Colossians 1:16 is one of the most frequently quoted passages used to argue that Jesus created the Genesis universe.

• The Greek text begins with ἐν αὐτῷ (en autō), which literally means "in Him." Some English translations render this as "by Him," while others retain the more literal wording "in Him."

• The Greek verb ἐκτίσθη (ektisthē) correctly means "were created." The important question is not the translation of the verb, but what Paul means by "all things."

• Immediately after saying "all things," Paul specifies "thrones, dominions, rulers and authorities," directing attention to positions of authority rather than describing the six days of creation in Genesis.

• Elsewhere the New Testament teaches that God exalted Jesus after His resurrection and gave Him all authority (Matthew 28:18; Acts 2:36; Philippians 2:9–11; Ephesians 1:20–22).

• These passages raise the question of whether Colossians 1:16 is describing the new order established through God's exalted Messiah rather than the original creation account in Genesis.

• The context of Colossians 1 emphasizes Christ's supremacy, resurrection, reconciliation, and God's purpose accomplished through Him.

• Every reader should examine the immediate context before assuming Paul is referring to the Genesis creation.

• The best approach is to compare translations, examine the Greek text, and allow Scripture to interpret Scripture.

"Test all things; hold fast what is good."
— 1 Thessalonians 5:21

FULL Article here: https://wwwrealdiscoveriesorg-simon.blogspot.com/2021/07/the-false-translations-of-colossians.html